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At t=0, an object of mass mis at rest at x=0on a horizontal, frictionless surface. Starting at t=0, a horizontal forcé Fx=F0et/Tis exerted on the object.

a. Find and graph an expression for the object's velocity at an arbitrary later time t.

b. What is the object's velocity after a very long time has elapsed?

Short Answer

Expert verified

Part(a): The expression of particle velocity at any time tis v(t)=F0Tm[1et/T].

Part (b): Objects velocity after a very long time isF0Tm.

Step by step solution

01

Part (a) Step 1: Given.

Force on the particle, Fx=Foet/T.

Velocity at time t=0.

Position at timev=0.

02

Part (b): Step 2: Formula used.

Force on a object is given by the equation:

F=ma

Here,

mis the mass.

ais the acceleration.

03

Part (b): Step 3: Calculation

Force on the particle is given as:

Fx=Foet/T(1)

Force on an object is given by the equation

F=ma..(2)

On comparing Eq. {1}and Eq.{2}

role="math" localid="1647718262854" ma=Foet/Ta=Fset/Tm

The velocity of a particle at a time tis obtain by integrating the above equation,

role="math" localid="1647718224750" adt=Foet/Tmdtdvddt=F0w0Tet/T(3)

v=-F0Tme-t/T+C

04

Part (b) Step 4: Calculation.

Here,

Cis the arbitrary constant of integration

Apply the boundary condition that at time t=0the velocity of the particle is 0.

Plugging the values in the above equation

v=F0Tm[et/T]+C0=F0Tm(e0)+CC=F0Tm

Substitute the value of Cin Eq. (3

v=F0Tm[et/T]+F0Tm=F0Tm[1et/T]

05

Part (b) Step 5: GIven.

The expression of particle velocity at any time tisv(t)=F0Tm[1et/T].

06

Part (b): Step 6; Calculation.

Expression of particle velocity at any timet is:

v(t)=F0Tm[1et/T]

The velocity of a particle is an exponent function of time, therefore as the time elapsed the magnitude of exponent term will be 0.

And the velocity of the particle is given as:

v(t)=F0Tm[1e/T]=F0Tm[10]=F0Tm

07

Conclusions.

Part (a): Expression of particle velocity at any timetis v(t)=F0Tm[1et/T].

Part (b): Objects velocity after a very long time isF0Tm.

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