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Suppose the tunneling probability is10-12for a wide barrier when E is 1100U0

(a) About how much smaller would it be if ’E’ were instead 11000U0?

(b) If this case does not support the general rule that transmission probability is a sensitive function of E, what makes it exceptional?

Short Answer

Expert verified

Probability of transmission/tunneling reduces to a factor of 100, in the new case

Write answer for both subaprts

Step by step solution

01

Definition

Transmission probability can be defined as the probability with which the particle (whose Total energy is less than the threshold potential energy of the barrier) can tunnel/transmit through the barrier.

Its formula is given by :

T=16EU01-EU0e-2L2mU0E

02

Given Parameters

Ti=10-12forE=1100U0

03

Step  3: Solution

We are asked to find out the Tunneling Probability(T) when E=11000U0

Initially,

1012=16.1100.1-1100.e-2L2m.99100U02L2mU0=25.918

Now, plugging in this constants value to get our new T, we do:

T=16X11000X9991000Xe-25.918X9991000

Finally, comparing both:

TiT=100

04

Explanation and Conclusion:

From the calculations, we can see that when the energy of the particle reduces, so does its probability of getting through the barrier, i.e., T is sensitive on E.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Calculate the reflection probability 5evfor an electron encountering a step in which the potential drop by 2ev

A ball is thrown straight up at 25ms-1. Someone asks “Ignoring air resistance. What is the probability of the ball tunneling to a height of1000m?” Explain why this is not an example of tunneling as discussed in this chapter, even if the ball were replaced with a small fundamental particle. (The fact that the potential energy varies with position is not the whole answer-passing through nonrectangular barriers is still tunnelirl8.)

A method for finding tunneling probability for a barrier that is "wide" but whose height varies in an arbitrary way is the so-called WKB approximation.

T=exp[2122m(U(x)E)dx]

Here U(x) is the height of the arbitrary potential energy barrier.Whicha particle first penetrates at x=0 and finally exits at x=L. Although not entirely rigorous, show that this can be obtained by treating the barrier as a series of rectangular slices, each of width dx (though each is still a "wide" barrier), and by assuming that the probability of tunneling through the total is the product of the probabilities for each slice.

For particles incident from the left on the potential energy shown below, what incident energies E would imply a possibility of later being found infinitely far to the right? Does your answer depend on whether the particles behave classically or quantum-mechanically?

Show that the quite general wave group given in equation (6-21) is a solution of the free-particle Schrödinger equation, provided that each plane wave's w does satisfy the matter-wave dispersion relation given in (6-23).

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