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Question: Show that the angular normalization constant in Table 7.3 for the case (l,ml)=(1,0) is correct.

Short Answer

Expert verified

Answer

It has been proved that the normalization for the case (l,ml)=(1,0)is correct.

Step by step solution

01

Given data

The wave function corresponding to l,ml=1,0 is,

Θl,mlθΦmlϕ=34πcosθ

02

Normalization

TheangularpartoftheHydrogenatomwavefunctionshouldsatisfytheflowingcondition,0πΘl,mlθ22πsinθdθ=1 .....(I)

03

Determining whether the given normalization constant is correct

In the given wave function,

Θl,mlθ=34πcosθ

Check equation (I) as,

=34π×2π0πcos2θsinθdθ=320πcos2θsinθdθ

Let us assume,

cosθ=z-sinθdθ=dz

Then the integral becomes,

=321-1z2-dz=32-11z2dz=32z33-11=32×23=1

Thus the normalization is correct.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

In section 7.5,eimlφis presented a sour preferred solution to the azimuthal equation, but there is more general one that need not violate the smoothness condition, and that in fact covers not only complex exponentials but also suitable redelinitions of multiplicative constants, sine, and cosine,

Φm1(Φ)=Ae+imlφ+Be+imlφ

(a) Show that the complex square of this function is not, in general, independent of φ.

(b) What conditions must be met by A and/or B for the probability density to be rotationally symmetric – that is, independent of φ ?

Doubly ionized lithium, Li2+absorbs a photon and jumps from the ground state to its n=2level. What was the wavelength of the photon?

A particle orbiting due to an attractive central force has angular momentum L=1.00×10-33kg.m/s What z-components of angular momentum is it possible to detect?

Taking then=3states as representative, explain the relationship between the complexity numbers of nodes and antinodes-of hydrogen's standing waves in the radial direction and their complexity in the angular direction at a given value of n. Is it a direct or inverse relationship, and why?

A wave function with a non-infinite wavelength-however approximate it might be- has nonzero momentum and thus nonzero kinetic energy. Even a single "bump" has kinetic energy. In either case, we can say that the function has kinetic energy because it has curvature- a second derivative. Indeed, the kinetic energy operator in any coordinate system involves a second derivative. The only function without kinetic energy would be a straight line. As a special case, this includes a constant, which may be thought of as a function with an infinite wavelength. By looking at the curvature in the appropriate dimension(s). answer the following: For a givenn,isthe kinetic energy solely

(a) radial in the state of lowest l- that is, l=0; and

(b) rotational in the state of highest l-that is, l=n-1?

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