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does the wave function have a well-defined ψ(x)=A(eikx+e-ikx)momentum? Explain.

Short Answer

Expert verified

The constant in the front multiplies the initial function and two opposing moving plane waves are added, so the momentum is not clearly defined.

Step by step solution

01

Identification of given data

  • The wave function isψx,t=Aeikx+e-ikx.
02

Concept/significance of Eigenvector

The eigenvectors of a linear transformation are those vectors where the transformation only modifies the magnitude of the vectors and not the angle. The "eigenvalue" of vectors refers to the ratio by which they differ from the original, and the vectors it works with are referred to as the "eigenvectors" corresponding to the eigenvalue.

03

Determination ofthe wave function has well-defined momentum: 

The momentum operator is:

p^ψx,t=-ixψx,t.

Replace the value of the wave function in the above equation.

p^ψx,t=-ixAeikx+e-ikx=-iAikeikx-ike-ikx=-i2kAeikx-e-ikx=kAeikx-e-ikx.

Hence, the constant in the front multiplies the initial functionand two opposing moving plane waves are added, so the momentum is not clearly defined.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

We say that the ground state for the particle in a box has nonzero energy. What goes wrong with Ψin equation 5.16 if n = 0 ?

Whereas an infinite well has an infinite number of bound states, a finite well does not. By relating the well heightU0 to the kinetic energy and the kinetic energy (through λ) to n and L. Show that the number of bound states is given roughly by8ml2U0/h2 (Assume that the number is large.)

Question: the operator for angular momentum about the z-axis in spherical polar coordinate is -iϕ.find the function fϕ that would have a well-defined z-component of angular momentum.

It is possible to take the finite well wave functions further than (21) without approximation, eliminating all but one normalization constant C . First, use the continuity/smoothness conditions to eliminate A, B , andG in favor of Cin (21). Then make the change of variables z=x-L/2 and use the trigonometric relations

sin(a+b)=sinacosb+cosasinband

cos(a+b)=cosacosb-sinasinbon the

functions in region I, -L/2<z<L/2. The change of variables shifts the problem so that it is symmetric about z=0, which requires that the probability density be symmetric and thus that ψ(z)be either an odd or even function of z. By comparing the region II and region III functions, argue that this in turn demands that (α/k)sinkL+coskL must be either +1 (even) or -1 (odd). Next, show that these conditions can be expressed, respectively, as αk=tankL2 and αk=-cotkL2. Finally, plug these separately back into the region I solutions and show that

ψ(z)=C×{eα(z+L/2)          z<L/2coskzcoskL2          -L/2<z<L/2e-α(z-L/2)          z>L/2


or

ψ(z)=C×{eα(z+L/2)          z<L/2-sinkzsinkL2          -L/2<z<L/2e-α(z-L/2)          z>L/2

Note that Cis now a standard multiplicative normalization constant. Setting the integral of |ψ(z)|2 over all space to 1 would give it in terms of kand α , but because we can’t solve (22) exactly for k(or E), neither can we obtain an exact value for C.

The deeper the finite well, the more state it holds. In fact, a new state, the, is added when the well’s depthU0reachesh2(n1)2/8mL2. (a) Argue that this should be the case based only onk=2mE/h2, the shape of the wave inside, and the degree of penetration of the classically forbidden region expected for a state whose energy E is only negligibly belowU0. (b) How many states would be found up to this same “height” in an infinite well.

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