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Prove the theorem stated just after (10.2) as follows. Let φ(u, v) be a harmonic function (that is, φ satisfies 2φ/u2+2φ/v2=0). Show that there is then an analytic function g(w) = φ(u, v) + iψ(u, v) (see Section 2). Let w = f(z) = u + iv be another analytic function (this is the mapping function). Show that the function h(z) = g(f(z)) is analytic. Hint: Show that h(z) has a derivative. (How do you find the derivative of a function of a function, for example, ln sin z?) Then (by Section 2) the real part of h(z) is harmonic. Show that this real part is φ(u(x, y), v(x, y)).

Short Answer

Expert verified

The function h(z) = g(f(z)) is analytic function.

Step by step solution

01

Laplace equation and chain rule.

Laplace equation:

2ϕu2+2ϕv2=0

Chain rule to find the derivative of h(z) :

h'(z) = g'(f(z)) f'(z)

02

Show the function  h'(z) = g'(f(z)) f'(z)  is analytic.

Consider the function ϕ(u,v) to be a harmonic motion.

If a function is harmonic motion, it satisfies the Laplace equation:

2ϕu2+2ϕv2=0

If ϕ(u,v)be harmonic function in a simply connected domain D .

Then there exists a harmonic conjugate of ϕ(u,v) in the domain D .

So, the function, satisfy the Laplace equation as follows:

2ϕu2+2ϕv2=0.

Use chain rule to find the derivative of h(z) :

h'(z) = g'(f(z)) f'(z)

The function of f(z) is an analytic function and g(f(z)) is also an analytic function.

So, the derivative f'(z) and g'(f(z)) exist.

It’s known that the product of analytic functions is also an analytic function.

So, f'(z) x g'(f(z) exists.

So, the derivative of h'(z) exists.

Hence, the function h(z) = g(f(z)) is analytic function.

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