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The raising and lowering operators change the value of m by one unit:

L±flm=(Alm)flm+1, (4.120).

Where Almare constant. Question: What is Alm, if the Eigen functions are to be normalized? Hint: First show thatL±is the Hermitian conjugate of L±(Since LxandLyare observables, you may assume they are Hermitian…but prove it if you like); then use Equation 4.112.

Short Answer

Expert verified

If the Eigen functions are to be normalized, they are upper and lower signs.

Step by step solution

01

Given.

The raising and lowering operators are:

L+flm=(Alm)flm+1,L-flm=(Blm)flm-1,

02

Eigen functions to be normalized

We start solving the problem by taking the inner product between a hydro genic set acted upon L±and Las following:

Alm=ħl(l+1)-m(m+1)=ħl(l+1)-m(m+1),Blm=ħl(l+1)-m(m+1)=ħl(l+1)-m(m+1),L2=L±L+Lz2±ħLz(4.112).

Note what happens at the top and bottom of the ladder (i.e. when you apply L+L+tofllorL-tofl-lNow,usingEq.4.112,inthefromL±L=L2-Lz2ħLzLL2=L±L+Lz2ħLzL2=L4.112.

flmlLmL±flm=flmlL2-Lz2mhLzflm=flml[h2ll+l-h2m2mh2m]flm=h2ll+1-mm±1flmlflm=h2ll+1-mm±1=L±flmlL±flmUppersigns:ħ2ll+1-mm+1=L+flmlL+flm=Almflm+1lAlmflm+1=Alm2Alm=ħll+1-mm+1Lowersigns:ħ2ll+1-mM-1=L-flmlL-flm=Blmflm-1lBlmflm-1=Blm2

At the top of the ladderm=lwe get All=0wegetAll=0, so there is no higher rung; at the bottom of the ladder m=l we getBl-l=0 , so there is no lower rung.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

[Refer to Problem 4.59 for background.] In classical electrodynamics the potentials Aandφare not uniquely determined; 47 the physical quantities are the fields, E and B.

(a) Show that the potentials

φ'φ-Λt,A'A+Λ

(whereis an arbitrary real function of position and time). yield the same fields asφand A. Equation 4.210 is called a gauge transformation, and the theory is said to be gauge invariant.

(b) In quantum mechanics the potentials play a more direct role, and it is of interest to know whether the theory remains gauge invariant. Show that

Ψ'eiqΛ/Ψ

satisfies the Schrödinger equation (4.205) with the gauge-transformed potentialsφ'andA', SinceΨ'differs fromψonly by a phase factor, it represents the same physical state, 48and the theory is gauge invariant (see Section 10.2.3for further discussion).

Work out the spin matrices for arbitrary spin , generalizing spin (Equations 4.145 and 4.147), spin 1 (Problem 4.31), and spin (Problem 4.52). Answer:

Sz=(s0000s-10000s-200000-s)Sx=2(0bs0000bs0bs-10000bs-10bs-20000bs-200000000b-s+10000b-s+10)Sy=2(0-ibs0000ibs0-ibs-10000-ibs-10-ibs-20000-ibs-200000000-ibs+10000-ibs+10)

where,bj(s+j)(s+1-j)

(a) What isL+Y1I? (No calculation allowed!)

(b) Use the result of (a), together with Equation 4.130 and the fact thatLzY1I=hIYII to determineYII(θ,ϕ) , up to a normalization constant.

(c) Determine the normalization constant by direct integration. Compare your final answer to what you got in Problem 4.5.

Construct the spin matrices(Sx,Sy andSz) , for a particle of spin 1. Hint: How many eigenstates ofSz are there? Determine the action of Sz, S+, and Son each of these states. Follow the procedure used in the text for spin 1/2.

(a) Apply S_tolocalid="1656131461017" 10>(Equation4.177), and confirm that you getlocalid="1656131442455" 2h1-1>.

(b) ApplyS+to[00>(Equation4.178), and confirm that you get zero.

(c) Show thatlocalid="1656131424007" 11>andlocalid="1656131406083" 1-1>(Equation4.177) are eigenstates ofS2, with the appropriate eigenvalue

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