Question

Who’s pregnant? According to the Current Population Survey (CPS), 27%

of U.S. females are older than 55. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) report that 6% of all U.S. females are pregnant. Suppose that these results are accurate. If we randomly select a U.S. female, is P(pregnant and over 55) =$(0.06)(0.27)=0.0162$? Why or why not?

Short answer

No because events cannot be considered independent events

Step-by-step solution

Given information

Given that,

$P$( Females older than $55$)$=27\%=0.27$
$P$(U.S females are pregnant)$=6\%=0.06$

$P$( Over $55$ and pregnant )$=0.0162$

Explanation

Females over $55$have a very low chance of becoming pregnant, implying that these two events are not mutually exclusive. Because the events are not self-contained. It's not a good idea to use multiplication to figure out the chances of being over $55$and pregnant.