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Let \(\mu\) be counting measure on \(\mathrm{N}\). Then \(f_{n} \rightarrow f\) in measure iff \(f_{n} \rightarrow f\) uniformly.

Short Answer

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On \( \mathbb{N} \), convergence in measure is equivalent to uniform convergence.

Step by step solution

01

Understanding Counting Measure

The counting measure \( \mu \) is defined on the set of natural numbers \( \mathbb{N} \) such that for any subset \( A \subseteq \mathbb{N} \), \( \mu(A) \) is the number of elements in \( A \). This means the measure of any finite set is simply its cardinality, and for infinite sets, it is infinite.
02

Convergence in Measure

The sequence of functions \( f_n \) converges to \( f \) in measure if for every \( \epsilon > 0 \), the measure of the set where \( |f_n(x) - f(x)| > \epsilon \) goes to zero as \( n \) goes to infinity.
03

Uniform Convergence

The sequence of functions \( f_n \) converges uniformly to \( f \) if for every \( \epsilon > 0 \), there exists a number \( N \) such that for all \( n > N \), \( |f_n(x) - f(x)| < \epsilon \) for all \( x \in \mathbb{N} \). This means the convergence is uniform over the entire domain.
04

Convergence Implication in the Context of Natural Numbers

Since \( \mathbb{N} \) is a countable set, convergence in measure implies uniform convergence. When \( f_n \to f \) in measure, for any \( \epsilon > 0 \), the set \( \{ x \,|\, |f_n(x) - f(x)| > \epsilon \} \) has measure zero, which means finitely many points differ from \( f \). Due to the countable nature of \( \mathbb{N} \), this actually ensures uniform convergence.
05

Conclusion of Theoretical Equivalence

Thus, on \( \mathbb{N} \), convergence in measure is equivalent to uniform convergence due to the discrete nature of the set, making any difference from the limit function finitely countable.

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Key Concepts

These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.

Uniform Convergence
Uniform convergence is a special type of convergence for sequences of functions. Imagine you have a sequence of functions \( f_n(x) \) that are supposed to converge to a function \( f(x) \). For uniform convergence, the key is that the rate of convergence must be the same across the entire domain where these functions are defined.

In technical terms, for every small number \( \epsilon > 0 \), there must be a certain point in the sequence, say \( N \), from which onwards each function in the sequence is always within \( \epsilon \) distance from the target function \( f(x) \) over every point in their domain. This means, after that point \( N \), the entire graphed function is tightly wrapped around \( f(x) \) with no exceptions.

This condition must hold for all numbers larger than \( N \), and for all inputs \( x \) in the domain (like \( \mathbb{N} \), our set of natural numbers in this context). Such a strong condition implies a kind of uniform control over how the functions get closer to \( f(x) \), hence it's called uniform convergence.
Counting Measure
Counting measure is a way to measure the size of sets using very simple rules. Instead of thinking about length, area, or volume, the counting measure just looks at how many items are in a set. It's like how you count the number of coins in a jar. This is especially handy when dealing with countable sets, such as the natural numbers \( \mathbb{N} \).

For a given subset \( A \) of natural numbers, the counting measure \( \mu(A) \) is simply the number of elements in \( A \). If \( A \) is finite, \( \mu(A) \) will be just the size of \( A \). In cases where the subset \( A \) is infinite, the measure will be infinite too.

This kind of measure is intuitive and helps simplify problems, especially when linking to concepts like convergence, as it allows us to focus on whether differences in functions have significant impacts. With counting measure, convergence in measure becomes quite straightforward, simplifying to whether certain differences remain finite.
Natural Numbers
Natural numbers, denoted by \( \mathbb{N} \), are the simplest set of numbers we use in everyday counting: \( 1, 2, 3, \ldots \). They don't include zero in some interpretations, but they're the building blocks of arithmetic. Because \( \mathbb{N} \) is a set of positive integers, it's countable. This means there's a one-to-one correspondence between \( \mathbb{N} \) and any of its infinite subsets, making it an essential concept in measure theory and analysis.

When analyzing functions defined on \( \mathbb{N} \), properties like convergence become easier to handle. The simplicity and discreteness allow us often to treat the natural numbers almost as isolated points, without worrying about the finer details such as in continuous domains.

In the given problem, understanding how these numbers behave under different types of convergence can give insights into whether conditions like convergence in measure will easily translate to uniform convergence. This often comes down to the fact that on a countable set, differences that are negligible in measure become negligible uniformly as well.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Suppose that \(f\) is a function on \(\mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}^{k}\) such that \(f(x, \cdot)\) is Borel measurable for each \(x \in \mathbb{R}\) and \(f(\cdot, y)\) is continuous for each \(y \in \mathbb{R}^{k}\). For \(n \in \mathbb{N}\), define \(f_{n}\) as follows. For \(i \in \mathbb{Z}\) let \(a_{i}=i / n\), and for \(a_{i} \leq x \leq a_{i+1}\) let $$ f_{n}(x, y)=\frac{f\left(a_{i+1}, y\right)\left(x-a_{i}\right)-f\left(a_{i}, y\right)\left(x-a_{i+1}\right)}{a_{i+1}-a_{i}} $$ Then \(f_{n}\) is Borel measurable on \(\mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}^{k}\) and \(f_{n} \rightarrow f\) pointwise; hence \(f\) is Borel measurable on \(\mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}^{k}\). Conclude by induction that every function on \(\mathbb{R}^{n}\) that is continuous in each variable separately is Borel measurable.

Let \(f_{n}(x)=a e^{-n a x}-b e^{-n b x}\) where \(0

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For which real values of \(a\) and \(b\) is \(|x|^{a}|\log | x||^{b}\) integrable over \(\left\\{x \in \mathbb{R}^{n}\right.\) : \(\left.|x|<\frac{1}{2}\right\\}\) ? Over \(\left\\{x \in \mathbb{R}^{n}:|x|>2\right\\}\) ?

Let \((X, \mathcal{M}, \mu)\) and \((Y, \mathcal{N}, \nu)\) be arbitrary measure spaces (not necessarily \(\sigma\) finite). a. If \(f: X \rightarrow \mathbb{C}\) is \(\mathcal{M}\)-measurable, \(g: Y \rightarrow \mathbb{C}\) is N-measurable, and \(h(x, y)=\) \(f(x) g(y)\), then \(h\) is \(\mathcal{M} \otimes \mathcal{N}\)-measurable. b. If \(f \in L^{1}(\mu)\) and \(g \in L^{1}(\nu)\), then \(h \in L^{1}(\mu \times \nu)\) and \(\int h d(\mu \times \nu)=\) \(\left[\int f d \mu\right]\left[\int g d \nu\right]\).

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