Suppose that \(f\) is a function on \(\mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}^{k}\) such that
\(f(x, \cdot)\) is Borel measurable for each \(x \in \mathbb{R}\) and \(f(\cdot,
y)\) is continuous for each \(y \in \mathbb{R}^{k}\). For \(n \in \mathbb{N}\),
define \(f_{n}\) as follows. For \(i \in \mathbb{Z}\) let \(a_{i}=i / n\), and for
\(a_{i} \leq x \leq a_{i+1}\) let
$$
f_{n}(x, y)=\frac{f\left(a_{i+1}, y\right)\left(x-a_{i}\right)-f\left(a_{i},
y\right)\left(x-a_{i+1}\right)}{a_{i+1}-a_{i}}
$$
Then \(f_{n}\) is Borel measurable on \(\mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}^{k}\) and
\(f_{n} \rightarrow f\) pointwise; hence \(f\) is Borel measurable on \(\mathbb{R}
\times \mathbb{R}^{k}\). Conclude by induction that every function on
\(\mathbb{R}^{n}\) that is continuous in each variable separately is Borel
measurable.