Question

True or False The graph of $f\left(x\right)={\log }_{a}x$, where $a>0$ and $a\ne 0$, has an x-intercept equal to 1 and no y-intercept.

Short answer

The statement is true.

Step-by-step solution

Step 1. Given information.

Consider the given information.

$f\left(x\right)={\log }_{a}x$

Step 2. Explanation.

The given function has an x-intercept, which is (1,0) and no y-intercept.

Let's draw the function.