Question

Say true or false :

The graph of $f\left(x\right)={\log }_{a}x$, where $a>0$and $a\ne 1$, has an x-intercept equal to 1 and no y-intercept.

Short answer

The statement is true.

Step-by-step solution

Step 1. Given information

Given statement is :

The graph of $f\left(x\right)={\log }_{a}x$, where $a>0$and $a\ne 1$, has an x-intercept equal to 1 and no y-intercept

X- intercept : The point on $X$-axis that touches function, i.e.,$(x,0)$where$x$is arbitary.

Y-intercept : The point on $Y$-axis that touches function , i.e., $(y,0)$where $y$is arbitary.

Step 2. Graph regarding statement

The graph of the above statement is

Step 3. Check

The statement is true according to the graph.