Question

True or False If $f$and $g$are inverse functions, the domain of $f$ is the same as the range of $g$.

Short answer

Its true, If $f$and $g$are inverse functions, the domain of $f$is the same as the range of$g$.

Step-by-step solution

Step 1. Given

Given that$f$and$g$are inverse function.

Step 2. Explanation

If $f\left(x\right)$and $f^{-1}\left(x\right)$are inverse functions, then domain of $f\left(x\right)$is same as the range of $f^{-1}\left(x\right)$.