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A particle moves among \(n+1\) vertices that are situated on a circle in the following manner. At each step it moves one step either in the clockwise direction with probability \(p\) or the counterclockwise direction with probability \(q=1-p\). Starting at a specified state, call it state 0 , let \(T\) be the time of the first return to state 0 . Find the probability that all states have been visited by time \(T\). Hint: Condition on the initial transition and then use results from the gambler's ruin problem.

Short Answer

Expert verified
The probability that all states have been visited by the time the particle returns to state 0 can be found by conditioning on the initial transition and using the concept of gambler's ruin. The resulting probability is given by: \[ P_n = p \left[ 1 - \frac{1 - (\frac{p}{q})^{n-1}}{1 - (\frac{p}{q})^n} \right] + q \left[ 1 - \frac{1 - (\frac{p}{q})^{-1}}{1 - (\frac{p}{q})^n} \right] \]

Step by step solution

01

(Step 1: Define state space and transition probabilities)

We consider a discrete-time Markov chain with \( n+1 \) states, numbered from 0 to \( n \). Let \( X_k \) be the state occupied by the particle at step \( k\geq 0 \) . The transition probabilities can be defined as follows: - Clockwise movement: \( P_{ij} = p \) if \( (i+1) \) mod \( (n+1) = j \) - Counterclockwise movement: \( P_{ij} = q \) if \( (i-1) \) mod \( (n+1) = j \)
02

(Step 2: Use conditioning on the initial transition)

Let \( P_n \) denote the probability that all states have been visited by time \( T \). We can condition on the outcome of the first step. By conditioning on whether the particle moves clockwise or counterclockwise initially, we have: \[ P_n = p P^{(1)}_n + q P^{(-1)}_n \] where: - \( P^{(1)}_n \) is the probability that all states have been visited by time \( T \) given that the particle moves clockwise in the first step. - \( P^{(-1)}_n \) is the probability that all states have been visited by time \( T \) given that the particle moves counterclockwise in the first step.
03

(Step 3: Connect the problem to gambler's ruin)

By considering the direction of the first step as the initial choice of direction the particle needs to move for the states to be visited, the problem can be viewed as a one-sided gambler's ruin problem. In gambler's ruin, the probability of winning with \( a \) starting sum before reaching the target sum is \( \frac{1 - (\frac{p}{q})^a}{1 - (\frac{p}{q})^n} \). In our case, when the particle moves clockwise in the first step, the probability is: \[ P^{(1)}_n = 1 - \frac{1 - (\frac{p}{q})^{n-1}}{1 - (\frac{p}{q})^n} \] Similarly, when the particle moves counterclockwise in the first step, the probability is: \[ P^{(-1)}_n = 1 - \frac{1 - (\frac{p}{q})^{-1}}{1 - (\frac{p}{q})^n} \]
04

(Step 4: Compute the probability of visiting all states)

Combining the probabilities found in step 2 and step 3, we have: \[ P_n = p \left[ 1 - \frac{1 - (\frac{p}{q})^{n-1}}{1 - (\frac{p}{q})^n} \right] + q \left[ 1 - \frac{1 - (\frac{p}{q})^{-1}}{1 - (\frac{p}{q})^n} \right] \] This gives us the probability that all states have been visited by the time the particle returns to state 0.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Let \(\mathrm{P}\) be the transition probability matrix of a Markov chain. Argue that if for some positive integer \(r, \mathrm{P}^{r}\) has all positive entries, then so does \(\mathrm{P}^{n}\), for all integers \(n \geqslant r\).

A transition probability matrix \(\mathbf{P}\) is said to be doubly stochastic if the sum over each column equals one; that is, $$ \sum_{i} P_{i j}=1, \quad \text { for all } j $$ If such a chain is irreducible and aperiodic and consists of \(M+1\) states \(0,1, \ldots, M\), show that the limiting probabilities are given by $$ \pi_{j}=\frac{1}{M+1}, \quad j=0,1, \ldots, M $$

Consider a Markov chain with states \(0,1,2,3,4\). Suppose \(P_{0,4}=1\); and suppose that when the chain is in state \(i, i>0\), the next state is equally likely to be any of the states \(0,1, \ldots, i-1\). Find the limiting probabilities of this Markov chain.

Suppose in the gambler's ruin problem that the probability of winning a bet depends on the gambler's present fortune. Specifically, suppose that \(\alpha_{i}\) is the probability that the gambler wins a bet when his or her fortune is \(i\). Given that the gambler's initial fortune is \(i\), let \(P(i)\) denote the probability that the gambler's fortune reaches \(N\) before 0 . (a) Derive a formula that relates \(P(i)\) to \(P(i-1)\) and \(P(i+1)\). (b) Using the same approach as in the gambler's ruin problem, solve the equation of part (a) for \(P(i)\) (c) Suppose that \(i\) balls are initially in urn 1 and \(N-i\) are in urn 2, and suppose that at each stage one of the \(N\) balls is randomly chosen, taken from whichever urn it is in, and placed in the other urn. Find the probability that the first urn becomes empty before the second.

\(M\) balls are initially distributed among \(m\) urns. At each stage one of the balls is selected at random, taken from whichever urn it is in, and then placed, at random, in one of the other \(M-1\) urns. Consider the Markov chain whose state at any time is the vector \(\left(n_{1}, \ldots, n_{m}\right)\) where \(n_{i}\) denotes the number of balls in urn \(i\). Guess at the limiting probabilities for this Markov chain and then verify your guess and show at the same time that the Markov chain is time reversible.

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