Warning: foreach() argument must be of type array|object, bool given in /var/www/html/web/app/themes/studypress-core-theme/template-parts/header/mobile-offcanvas.php on line 20

Suppose it is relatively easy to simulate from \(F_{i}\) for each \(i=1, \ldots, n .\) How can we simulate from (a) \(\quad F(x)=\prod_{i=1}^{n} F_{i}(x) ?\) (b) \(F(x)=1-\prod_{i=1}^{n}\left(1-F_{i}(x)\right) ?\) (c) Give two methods for simulating from the distribution \(F(x)=x^{n}, 0

Short Answer

Expert verified
To simulate from the product of multiple CDFs, use Inverse Transform Sampling by computing the inverses of the individual CDFs, drawing random samples from a uniform distribution, and multiplying the calculated values. For the CDF \(F(x) = 1 - \prod_{i=1}^{n}(1 - F_{i}(x))\), follow similar steps but compute \(x_i\) as \(F^{-1}_{i}(1-u_i)\) and compute the final simulated value as \(x = 1 - (1 - x)\). Two methods for simulating from the distribution with the CDF \(F(x) = x^n\) include Inverse Transform Sampling and simulating using exponential distribution.

Step by step solution

01

(a) Simulating from the product of CDFs)

To simulate from the product of multiple CDFs, we can use the following Inverse Transform Sampling technique: 1. For each distribution, compute the inverse of the CDF, denoted by \(F^{-1}_{i}(u)\). 2. Draw random samples \(u_{i}\), \(i = 1, \ldots, n\), from a uniform distribution in the range \([0,1]\). 3. Compute \(x_i = F^{-1}_{i}(u_i)\) for each \(i = 1, \ldots, n\). 4. Multiply the calculated \(x_i\) values: \(x = \prod_{i=1}^{n} x_i\). The resulting \(x\) values will follow the distribution \(F(x) = \prod_{i=1}^{n} F_{i}(x)\).
02

(b) Simulating from the given CDF)

To simulate from the CDF \(F(x) = 1 - \prod_{i=1}^{n} (1 - F_{i}(x))\), we use the following steps: 1. For each distribution, compute the inverse of the CDF, denoted by \(F^{-1}_{i}(u)\). 2. Draw random samples \(u_{i}\), \(i = 1, \ldots, n\), from a uniform distribution in the range \([0,1]\). 3. Compute \(x_i = F^{-1}_{i}(1 - u_i)\) for each \(i = 1, \ldots, n\). 4. Multiply the calculated \(1 - x_i\) values: \(1 - x = \prod_{i=1}^{n} (1-x_i)\). 5. Compute the final simulated value: \(x = 1 - (1 - x)\). The resulting \(x\) values will follow the distribution \(F(x) = 1 - \prod_{i=1}^{n} (1 - F_{i}(x))\).
03

(c) Two methods for simulating from \(F(x) = x^n\))

Here, we provide two methods for simulating from the distribution with a CDF given by \(F(x) = x^n\), \(0 < x < 1\): 1. Inverse Transform Sampling Method: a. Compute the inverse of the CDF: \(F^{-1}(u) = \sqrt[n]{u}\), where \(u\) is a random realization from a uniform distribution in the range \([0,1]\). b. Draw a random sample from a uniform distribution in the range \([0,1]\) and denote it as \(u\). c. Compute \(x = F^{-1}(u) = \sqrt[n]{u}\). The simulated \(x\) values will follow the distribution \(F(x) = x^n\). 2. Simulation using Exponential Distribution: a. Draw random samples \(y_i\), \(i = 1, \ldots, n\), from an exponential distribution with parameter \(\lambda = 1\). b. Calculate the sum of \(y_i\) values: \(y = \sum_{i=1}^{n} y_i\). c. Compute the simulated value: \(x = \frac{y}{1 + y}\). The resulting \(x\) values will follow the distribution \(F(x) = x^n\).

Unlock Step-by-Step Solutions & Ace Your Exams!

  • Full Textbook Solutions

    Get detailed explanations and key concepts

  • Unlimited Al creation

    Al flashcards, explanations, exams and more...

  • Ads-free access

    To over 500 millions flashcards

  • Money-back guarantee

    We refund you if you fail your exam.

Over 30 million students worldwide already upgrade their learning with Vaia!

One App. One Place for Learning.

All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.

Get started for free

Most popular questions from this chapter

Let \(X_{1}, \ldots, X_{n}\) be independent random variables with \(E\left[X_{i}\right]=\theta, \operatorname{Var}\left(X_{i}\right)=\sigma_{i}^{2}\) \(i=1, \ldots, n\), and consider estimates of \(\theta\) of the form \(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \lambda_{i} X_{i}\) where \(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \lambda_{i}=1\). Show that \(\operatorname{Var}\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \lambda_{i} X_{i}\right)\) is minimized when $$\lambda_{i}=\left(1 / \sigma_{i}^{2}\right) /\left(\sum_{j=1}^{n} 1 / \sigma_{j}^{2}\right), \quad i=1, \ldots, n$$ Possible Hint: If you cannot do this for general \(n\), try it first when \(n=2\). The following two problems are concerned with the estimation of \(\int_{0}^{1} g(x) d x=E[g(U)]\) where \(U\) is uniform \((0,1)\).

In Example \(11.4\) we simulated the absolute value of a standard normal by using the Von Neumann rejection procedure on exponential random variables with rate \(1 .\) This raises the question of whether we could obtain a more efficient algorithm by using a different exponential density-that is, we could use the density \(g(x)=\) \(\lambda e^{-\lambda x}\). Show that the mean number of iterations needed in the rejection scheme is minimized when \(\lambda=1\).

If \(f\) is the density function of a normal random variable with mean \(\mu\) and variance \(\sigma^{2}\), show that the tilted density \(f_{t}\) is the density of a normal random variable with mean \(\mu+\sigma^{2} t\) and variance \(\sigma^{2}\).

Consider the following procedure for randomly choosing a subset of size \(k\) from the numbers \(1,2, \ldots, n:\) Fix \(p\) and generate the first \(n\) time units of a renewal process whose interarrival distribution is geometric with mean \(1 / p-\) that is, \(P\\{\) interarrival time \(=k\\}=p(1-p)^{k-1}, k=1,2, \ldots .\) Suppose events occur at times \(i_{1}k\) then randomly choose (by some method) a subset of size \(k\) from \(i_{1}, \ldots, i_{m}\) and then stop. If \(m

Suppose \(n\) balls having weights \(w_{1}, w_{2}, \ldots, w_{n}\) are in an urn. These balls are sequentially removed in the following manner: At each selection, a given ball in the urn is chosen with a probability equal to its weight divided by the sum of the weights of the other balls that are still in the urn. Let \(I_{1}, I_{2}, \ldots, I_{n}\) denote the order in which the balls are removed-thus \(I_{1}, \ldots, I_{n}\) is a random permutation with weights. (a) Give a method for simulating \(I_{1}, \ldots, I_{n}\). (b) Let \(X_{i}\) be independent exponentials with rates \(w_{i}, i=1, \ldots, n .\) Explain how \(X_{i}\) can be utilized to simulate \(I_{1}, \ldots, I_{n}\).

See all solutions

Recommended explanations on Math Textbooks

View all explanations

What do you think about this solution?

We value your feedback to improve our textbook solutions.

Study anywhere. Anytime. Across all devices.

Sign-up for free