Chapter 11: Problem 36
If \(U_{1}, U_{2}, U_{3}\) are independent uniform \((0,1)\) random variables, find \(P\left(\prod_{i=1}^{3} U_{i}>0.1\right)\) Hint: Relate the desired probability to one about a Poisson process.
Chapter 11: Problem 36
If \(U_{1}, U_{2}, U_{3}\) are independent uniform \((0,1)\) random variables, find \(P\left(\prod_{i=1}^{3} U_{i}>0.1\right)\) Hint: Relate the desired probability to one about a Poisson process.
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Get started for freeIf \(0 \leqslant X \leqslant a\), show that (a) \(E\left[X^{2}\right] \leqslant a E[X]\) (b) \(\operatorname{Var}(X) \leqslant E[X](a-E[X])\) (c) \(\operatorname{Var}(X) \leqslant a^{2} / 4\).
Let \(X_{1}, \ldots, X_{n}\) be independent random variables with \(E\left[X_{i}\right]=\theta, \operatorname{Var}\left(X_{i}\right)=\sigma_{i}^{2}\) \(i=1, \ldots, n\), and consider estimates of \(\theta\) of the form \(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \lambda_{i} X_{i}\) where \(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \lambda_{i}=1\). Show that \(\operatorname{Var}\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \lambda_{i} X_{i}\right)\) is minimized when $$\lambda_{i}=\left(1 / \sigma_{i}^{2}\right) /\left(\sum_{j=1}^{n} 1 / \sigma_{j}^{2}\right), \quad i=1, \ldots, n$$ Possible Hint: If you cannot do this for general \(n\), try it first when \(n=2\). The following two problems are concerned with the estimation of \(\int_{0}^{1} g(x) d x=E[g(U)]\) where \(U\) is uniform \((0,1)\).
Show that if \(X\) and \(Y\) have the same distribution then $$ \operatorname{Var}((X+Y) / 2) \leqslant \operatorname{Var}(X) $$ Hence, conclude that the use of antithetic variables can never increase variance (though it need not be as efficient as generating an independent set of random numbers).
Suppose it is relatively easy to simulate from the distributions \(F_{i},
i=1,2, \ldots, n .\) If \(n\) is small, how can we simulate from
$$
F(x)=\sum_{i=1}^{n} P_{i} F_{i}(x), \quad P_{i} \geqslant 0, \quad \sum_{i}
P_{i}=1 ?
$$
Give a method for simulating from
$$
F(x)=\left\\{\begin{array}{ll}
\frac{1-e^{-2 x}+2 x}{3}, & 0
Let \(X_{1}, \ldots, X_{n}\) be independent exponential random variables each having rate 1 . Set $$ \begin{aligned} &W_{1}=X_{1} / n \\ &W_{i}=W_{i-1}+\frac{X_{i}}{n-i+1}, \quad i=2, \ldots, n \end{aligned} $$ Explain why \(W_{1}, \ldots, W_{n}\) has the same joint distribution as the order statistics of a sample of \(n\) exponentials each having rate 1 .
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