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Let \(X_{1}, \ldots, X_{k}\) be independent with $$ P\left\\{X_{i}=j\right\\}=\frac{1}{n}, \quad j=1, \ldots, n, i=1, \ldots, k $$ If \(D\) is thê number of distinct values among \(X_{1}, \ldots, X_{k}\) show that $$ \begin{aligned} E[D] &=n\left[1-\left(\frac{n-1}{n}\right)^{k}\right] \\ & \approx k-\frac{k^{2}}{2 n} \quad \text { when } \frac{k^{2}}{n} \text { is small } \end{aligned} $$

Short Answer

Expert verified
The short answer to the problem is derived in three steps. First, you find the probability that a particular value is one of the distinct values among your set of random variables. This probability is calculated to be \(1 - \left(\frac{n-1}{n}\right)^k\). Second, you calculate the expected number of distinct values (denoted as \(E[D]\)) by summing up the probabilities for all possible values in your set, which yields \(E[D] = n \times \left[1 - \left(\frac{n-1}{n}\right)^k\right]\). Third, when \(\frac{k^2}{n}\) is small, you find the approximation of \(E[D]\) by using the binomial theorem and Taylor series expansion, which simplifies your expected value to \(E[D] \approx k - \frac{k^2}{2n}\).

Step by step solution

01

Calculate the probability that a particular value is one of the distinct values among the random variables

Since each \(X_i\) takes any of the \(n\) values with equal probability, the probability that a particular value (say 1) is not chosen by the \(i\)-th random variable is \(\frac{n-1}{n}\). The probability that this value is not chosen by any of the \(k\) random variables is \(\left(\frac{n-1}{n}\right)^k\). Therefore, the probability that this value is one of the distinct values among the random variables is \(1 - \left(\frac{n-1}{n}\right)^k\).
02

Calculate the expected number of distinct values, \(E[D]\)

Since there are \(n\) possible values, the expected number of distinct values is the sum of the probabilities that each value is one of the distinct values: \[E[D] = n \times \left[1 - \left(\frac{n-1}{n}\right)^k\right]\]
03

Find the approximation of \(E[D]\) when \(\frac{k^2}{n}\) is small

To find the approximation, we can use the binomial theorem and Taylor series expansion. Set \(x = -\frac{k}{n}\) and write \(\left(1 - \frac{1}{n}\right)^k\) as \((1 + x)^n\): \[\begin{aligned} \left(1 - \frac{1}{n}\right)^k &= \left(1 + \left(-\frac{k}{n}\right)\right)^n \\ &\approx 1 - nx + \frac{n(n-1)}{2}x^2 - \dotsb \\ &= 1 - nk + \frac{k^2}{2} + \dotsb \end{aligned}\] This is because the higher-order terms in the Taylor series have smaller and smaller values when \(\frac{k^2}{n}\) is small. Now, plug this approximation back into our expression for \(E[D]\): \[E[D] \approx n \left[1 - \left(1 - nk + \frac{k^2}{2}\right)\right] = k - \frac{k^2}{2n}\]

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Key Concepts

These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.

Probability Models
Probability models are theoretical frameworks that enable us to predict the likelihood of various outcomes. These models help in understanding phenomena that contain elements of chance or randomness. In the context of the exercise, the independent random variables \(X_{1}, ..., X_{k}\) represent the outcome of picking one of \(n\) different values with equal probability. This is a simple probability model known as the uniform distribution.

In this model, the probability is distributed equally among the \(n\) values for each random variable. The formulation \(P\{X_{i}=j\} = \frac{1}{n}\) indicates that each value has an equal chance of being chosen, which is a fundamental aspect of this probability model. By using this uniform model, we can analyze the situation and eventually compute the expected number of distinct values picked, denoted by \(E[D]\).
Random Variables
In the field of probability, a random variable is a numerical description of the outcome of a statistical experiment. Random variables can be discrete, taking on a finite or countable number of possibilities, or continuous, having an infinite spectrum of values within a range. The exercise deals with discrete random variables \(X_{1}, ..., X_{k}\), which take on values from 1 to \(n\) with equal chance.

When working with random variables, independence is a crucial concept. In our case, the random variables are independent, meaning that the choice of one value does not affect the choices of other values for the successive variables. Independence simplifies the analysis significantly, as seen in the step-by-step solution provided for the exercise. Understanding the behavior of these independent random variables is essential in finding the expected number of distinct values they will generate, crucial for solving our problem.
Taylor Series Expansion
Taylor series expansion is a mathematical tool for approximating functions with polynomials. When a function can be expressed as an infinite sum of its derivatives evaluated at a point, this series can approximate the function near that point. This concept applies when we assume \(\frac{k^2}{n}\) is small in the exercise.

To approximate \(E[D]\), we consider the expression \((1 - \frac{1}{n})^k\) and expand it into a polynomial using the Taylor series around \(x = -\frac{k}{n}\). The first few terms give us a good approximation when the higher powers of \(x\) become negligible (due to the smallness of \(\frac{k^2}{n}\)). Hence, we only keep the terms up to the second degree for our approximation, discarding the higher-order terms.

This approach simplifies complex probability problems, allowing one to make reasonable predictions when exact computations are unwieldy or unnecessary. It also exemplifies the power of mathematical approximation in solving real-world problems.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Let \(R\) denote a region in the two-dimensional plane. Show that for a twodimensional Poisson process, given that there are \(n\) points located in \(R\), the points are independently and uniformly distributed in \(R\) - that is, their density is \(f(x, y)=c,(x, y) \in R\) where \(c\) is the inverse of the area of \(R\).

Suppose we want to simulate a large number \(n\) of independent exponentials with rate \(1-\) call them \(X_{1}, X_{2}, \ldots, X_{n} .\) If we were to employ the inverse transform technique we would require one logarithmic computation for each exponential generated. One way to avoid this is to first simulate \(S_{n}\), a gamma random variable with parameters \((n, 1)\) (say, by the method of Section 11.3.3). Now interpret \(S_{n}\) as the time of the \(n\) th event of a Poisson process with rate 1 and use the result that given \(S_{n}\) the set of the first \(n-1\) event times is distributed as the set of \(n-1\) independent uniform \(\left(0, S_{n}\right)\) random variables. Based on this, explain why the following algorithm simulates \(n\) independent exponentials: Step 1: Generate \(S_{n}\), a gamma random variable with parameters \((n, 1)\). Step 2: Generate \(n-1\) random numbers \(U_{1}, U_{2}, \ldots, U_{n-1}\). Step 3: Order the \(U_{i}, i=1, \ldots, n-1\) to obtain \(U_{(1)}

Let \(X_{1}, \ldots, X_{n}\) be independent random variables with \(E\left[X_{i}\right]=\theta, \operatorname{Var}\left(X_{i}\right)=\sigma_{i}^{2}\) \(i=1, \ldots, n\), and consider estimates of \(\theta\) of the form \(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \lambda_{i} X_{i}\) where \(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \lambda_{i}=1\). Show that \(\operatorname{Var}\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \lambda_{i} X_{i}\right)\) is minimized when $$\lambda_{i}=\left(1 / \sigma_{i}^{2}\right) /\left(\sum_{j=1}^{n} 1 / \sigma_{j}^{2}\right), \quad i=1, \ldots, n$$ Possible Hint: If you cannot do this for general \(n\), try it first when \(n=2\). The following two problems are concerned with the estimation of \(\int_{0}^{1} g(x) d x=E[g(U)]\) where \(U\) is uniform \((0,1)\).

Consider the technique of simulating a gamma \((n, \lambda)\) random variable by using the rejection method with \(g\) being an exponential density with rate \(\lambda / n\). (a) Show that the average number of iterations of the algorithm needed to generate a gamma is \(n^{n} e^{1-n} /(n-1) !\) (b) Use Stirling's approximation to show that for large \(n\) the answer to part (a) is approximately equal to \(e[(n-1) /(2 \pi)]^{1 / 2}\) (c) Show that the procedure is equivalent to the following: Step 1: Generate \(Y_{1}\) and \(Y_{2}\), independent exponentials with rate \(1 .\) Step 2: If \(Y_{1}<(n-1)\left[Y_{2}-\log \left(Y_{2}\right)-1\right]\), return to step 1 . Step 3: \(\quad\) Set \(X=n Y_{2} / \lambda\) (d) Explain how to obtain an independent exponential along with a gamma from the preceding algorithm.

Suppose in Example \(11.19\) that no new customers are allowed in the system after time \(t_{0} .\) Give an efficient simulation estimator of the expected additional time after \(t_{0}\) until the system becomes empty.

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