Chapter 2: Problem 30
In Exerises 2.1.28-2.1.30 consider only the case where at least one of \(L_{1}\) and \(L_{2}\) is \(\pm \infty\). (a) Prove: If \(\lim _{x \rightarrow x_{0}} f(x)=L_{1} \cdot \lim _{x \rightarrow x_{0}} g(x)=L_{2} \neq 0,\) and \(L_{1} / L_{2}\) is not indeterminate, then $$ \lim _{x \rightarrow x_{0}}\left(\frac{f}{g}\right)(x)=\frac{L_{1}}{L_{2}} $$ (b) Show that it is necessary to assume that \(L_{2} \neq 0\) in \((a)\) by considering \(f(x)=\) \(\sin x, g(x)=\cos x,\) and \(x_{0}=\pi / 2\)
Short Answer
Step by step solution
Key Concepts
These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.