Chapter 2: Problem 3
(a) Prove: If \(f\) is continuous at \(x_{0}\) and there are constants \(a_{0}\) and \(a_{1}\) such that $$ \lim _{x \rightarrow x_{0}} \frac{f(x)-a_{0}-a_{1}\left(x-x_{0}\right)}{x-x_{0}}=0 $$ then \(a_{0}=f\left(x_{0}\right), f^{\prime}\) is differentiable at \(x_{0},\) and \(f^{\prime}\left(x_{0}\right)=a_{1} .\) (b) Give a counterexample to the following statement: If \(f\) and \(f^{\prime}\) are continuous at \(x_{0}\) and there are constants \(a_{0}, a_{1}\). and \(a_{2}\) such that $$ \lim _{x \rightarrow x_{0}} \frac{f(x)-a_{0}-a_{1}\left(x-x_{0}\right)-a_{2}\left(x-x_{0}\right)^{2}}{\left(x-x_{0}\right)^{2}}=0 $$ then \(f^{\prime \prime}\left(x_{0}\right)\) exists.
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