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Show that $$ R=\frac{\sum_{1}^{n}\left(X_{i}-\bar{X}\right)\left(Y_{i}-\bar{Y}\right)}{\sqrt{\sum_{1}^{n}\left(X_{i}-\bar{X}\right)^{2} \sum_{1}^{n}\left(Y_{i}-\bar{Y}\right)^{2}}}=\frac{\sum_{1}^{n} X_{i} Y_{i}-n \overline{X Y}}{\sqrt{\left(\sum_{1}^{n} X_{i}^{2}-n \bar{X}^{2}\right)\left(\sum_{1}^{n} Y_{i}^{2}-n \bar{Y}^{2}\right)}} $$

Short Answer

Expert verified
The right side of the equation simplifies to represent the left side, thus proving the two representations of Pearson's correlation coefficient R are equivalent.

Step by step solution

01

Understand the given formula

The given formula is the Pearson correlation coefficient, R, which measures the linear relationship between two datasets. In this case, \(X\) and \(Y\) are the datasets and \(X_i\) and \(Y_i\) are individual points in these datasets. \(\bar{X}\) and \(\bar{Y}\) represent the mean of the datasets \(X\) and \(Y\) respectively.
02

Begin simplifying

We begin by focusing on the numerator of the right-hand side. We can express \(\sum_{1}^{n} X_{i} Y_{i} - n \overline{XY}\) as \(\sum_{1}^{n} X_{i} Y_{i} - \sum_{1}^{n} \bar{X} \bar{Y}\). This simplifies the expression.
03

Continue simplifying

Next we express \(\bar{X}\) and \(\bar{Y}\) as the sum of squares divided by the number of elements. So, \(\bar{X}\bar{Y}\) becomes \(\frac{\sum_{1}^{n} X_{i}}{n} \cdot \frac{\sum_{1}^{n} Y_{i}}{n}\), which simplifies to \(\frac{\sum_{1}^{n} X_{i} Y_{i}}{n^2}\). Substituting this into the previous equation we get \(\sum_{1}^{n} X_{i} Y_{i} - \sum_{1}^{n} \frac{\sum_{1}^{n} X_{i} Y_{i}}{n}\), which simplifies to \(\sum_{1}^{n}(X_{i} - \bar{X})(Y_{i} - \bar{Y})\), exactly the numerator of the left-hand side.
04

Simplify the denominator

The denominator can be simplified using similar steps. \(\sum_{1}^{n} X_{i}^{2} - n \bar{X}^{2}\) becomes \(\sum_{1}^{n}(X_{i}^{2} - \bar{X^2})\). Similarly, \(\sum_{1}^{n} Y_{i}^{2} - n \bar{Y}^{2}\) becomes \(\sum_{1}^{n}(Y_{i}^{2} - \bar{Y^2})\). When these two new expressions are multiplied together, they become \(\sum_{1}^{n}(X_{i} - \bar{X})^{2}\sum_{1}^{n}(Y_{i} - \bar{Y})^{2}\), which is exactly the denominator of the left-hand side.
05

Conclude equivalence

Having shown that both numerator and denominator of the right-hand side simplify to the numerator and denominator of the left-hand side, this proves the equivalence of the two representations of the Pearson correlation coefficient. This is the correlation coefficient represented in the covariance form and variance form.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Consider Model \((9.6 .1) .\) Let \(\eta_{0}=E\left(Y \mid x=x_{0}-\bar{x}\right) .\) The least squares estimator of \(\eta_{0}\) is \(\hat{\eta}_{0}=\hat{\alpha}+\hat{\beta}\left(x_{0}-\bar{x}\righ(a) Using \)(9.6 .9)\(, show that \)\hat{\eta}_{0}\( is an unbiased estimator and show that its variance is given by $$ V\left(\hat{\eta}_{0}\right)=\sigma^{2}\left[\frac{1}{n}+\frac{\left(x_{0}-\bar{x}\right)^{2}}{\sum_{i=1}^{n}\left(x_{1}-\bar{x}\right)^{2}}\right] $$ (b) Obtain the distribution of \)\hat{\eta}_{0}\( and use it to determine a \)(1-\alpha) 100 \%\( confidence interval for \)\eta_{0}\(.t)\).

Let \(X_{1}, X_{2}, X_{3}, X_{4}\) denote a random sample of size 4 from a distribution that is \(N\left(0, \sigma^{2}\right)\). Let \(Y=\sum_{1}^{4} a_{i} X_{i}\), where \(a_{1}, a_{2}, a_{3}\), and \(a_{4}\) are real constants. If \(Y^{2}\) and \(Q=X_{1} X_{2}-X_{3} X_{4}\) are independent, determine \(a_{1}, a_{2}, a_{3}\), and \(a_{4}\).

Let \(A_{1}, A_{2}, \ldots, A_{k}\) be the matrices of \(k>2\) quadratic forms \(Q_{1}, Q_{2}, \ldots, Q_{k}\) in the observations of a random sample of size \(n\) from a distribution that is \(N\left(0, \sigma^{2}\right)\). Prove that the pairwise independence of these forms implies that they are mutually independent. Hint: \(\quad\) Show that \(\boldsymbol{A}_{i} \boldsymbol{A}_{j}=\mathbf{0}, i \neq j\), permits \(E\left[\exp \left(t_{1} Q_{1}+t_{2} Q_{2}+\cdots+t_{k} Q_{k}\right)\right]\) to be written as a product of the mgfs of \(Q_{1}, Q_{2}, \ldots, Q_{k}\).

Let \(Q_{1}\) and \(Q_{2}\) be two nonnegative quadratic forms in the observations of a random sample from a distribution that is \(N\left(0, \sigma^{2}\right) .\) Show that another quadratic form \(Q\) is independent of \(Q_{1}+Q_{2}\) if and only if \(Q\) is independent of each of \(Q_{1}\) and \(Q_{2}\) Hint: \(\quad\) Consider the orthogonal transformation that diagonalizes the matrix of \(Q_{1}+Q_{2}\). After this transformation, what are the forms of the matrices \(Q, Q_{1}\) and \(Q_{2}\) if \(Q\) and \(Q_{1}+Q_{2}\) are independent?

Let \(X_{1}, X_{2}, \ldots, X_{n}\) be a random sample from a normal distribution \(N\left(\mu, \sigma^{2}\right)\). Show that $$ \sum_{i=1}^{n}\left(X_{i}-\bar{X}\right)^{2}=\sum_{i=2}^{n}\left(X_{i}-\bar{X}^{\prime}\right)^{2}+\frac{n-1}{n}\left(X_{1}-\bar{X}^{\prime}\right)^{2}, $$ where \(\bar{X}=\sum_{i=1}^{n} X_{i} / n\) and \(\bar{X}=\sum_{i=2}^{n} X_{i} /(n-1)\) Hint: Replace \(X_{i}-\bar{X}\) by \(\left(X_{i}-\bar{X}^{\prime}\right)-\left(X_{1}-\bar{X}\right) / n .\) Show that \(\sum_{i=2}^{n}\left(X_{i}-\bar{X}^{\prime}\right)^{2} / \sigma^{2}\) has a chi-square distribution with \(n-2\) degrees of freedom. Prove that the two terms in the right-hand member are independent. What then is the distribution of $$ \frac{[(n-1) / n]\left(X_{1}-\bar{X}^{\prime}\right)^{2}}{\sigma^{2}} ? $$

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