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Let \(X_{1}, X_{2}, \ldots, X_{n}\) be a random sample from the beta distribution with \(\alpha=\beta=\theta\) and \(\Omega=\\{\theta: \theta=1,2\\}\). Show that the likelihood ratio test statistic \(\Lambda\) for testing \(H_{0}: \theta=1\) versus \(H_{1}: \theta=2\) is a function of the statistic \(W=\) \(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \log X_{i}+\sum_{i=1}^{n} \log \left(1-X_{i}\right)\).

Short Answer

Expert verified
-2 log-likelihood ratio or the Likelihood Ratio Test Statistic \(\Lambda\), for testing \(H_0: \theta=1\) versus \(H_1: \theta=2\), is a function of the statistic \(W = \sum_{i=1}^{n} [\log(x_i) + \log(1 - x_i)]\).

Step by step solution

01

Understanding the Hypotheses

The null hypothesis is \(H_{0}: \theta=1\) and the alternative hypothesis is \(H_{1}: \theta=2\). These hypotheses indicate that we will be testing whether \( \theta \) is 1 or 2.
02

Understanding the Beta distribution

The Beta distribution is given as \(f(x|\alpha, \beta) = \frac{x^{\alpha - 1}(1 - x)^{\beta - 1}}{B(\alpha, \beta)}\), where \( B(\alpha, \beta) \) is the Beta function and \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) are the shape parameters.
03

Derive the likelihood function

For beta distribution, the likelihood function is the product of all individual probability density functions: \(L(\theta) = \prod_{i=1}^{n}f(x_i|\theta, \theta) = \frac{1}{(B(\theta, \theta))^n}\prod_{i=1}^{n}x_i^{\theta - 1}(1 - x_i)^{\theta - 1}\).
04

Computing the Log-Likelihood Functions

The log-likelihood function for \( H_0 \) and \( H_1 \) are given by \(\log(L(1)) = n(\log(B(1,1)) + \sum_{i=1}^{n} (1 - 1)\log x_i + (1 - 1)\log(1 - x_i))\) and \( \log(L(2)) = n(\log(B(2,2)) + \sum_{i=1}^{n} (2 - 1)\log(x_i) + (2 - 1)\log (1 - x_i) ),\) respectively.
05

Deriving the Likelihood Ratio Test Statistic

-2 log-likelihood ratio can be formulated as \( -2\log\Lambda = -2[\log(L(1)) - \log(L(2))] = -2[\log(B(1,1)) - \log(B(2,2)) + \sum_{i=1}^{n} (\log(x_i) + \log(1 - x_i))] \) which is a function of the statistic W.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Prove that \(\bar{X}\), the mean of a random sample of size \(n\) from a distribution that is \(N\left(\theta, \sigma^{2}\right),-\infty<\theta<\infty\), is, for every known \(\sigma^{2}>0\), an efficient estimator of \(\theta\).

Let \(X_{1}, \ldots, X_{n}\) and \(Y_{1}, \ldots, Y_{m}\) be independent random samples from the distributions \(N\left(\theta_{1}, \theta_{3}\right)\) and \(N\left(\theta_{2}, \theta_{4}\right)\), respectively. (a) Show that the likelihood ratio for testing \(H_{0}: \theta_{1}=\theta_{2}, \theta_{3}=\theta_{4}\) against all alternatives is given by $$ \begin{aligned} &\qquad\left[\sum_{1}^{n}\left(x_{i}-\bar{x}\right)^{2} / n\right]^{n / 2}\left[\sum_{1}^{m}\left(y_{i}-\bar{y}\right)^{2} / m\right]^{m / 2} \\ &\left\\{\left[\sum_{1}^{n}\left(x_{i}-u\right)^{2}+\sum_{1}^{m}\left(y_{i}-u\right)^{2}\right] /(m+n)\right\\}^{(n+m) / 2} \end{aligned} $$ (b) Show that the likelihood ratio test for testing \(H_{0}: \theta_{3}=\theta_{4}, \theta_{1}\) and \(\theta_{2}\) unspecified, against \(H_{1}: \theta_{3} \neq \theta_{4}, \theta_{1}\) and \(\theta_{2}\) unspecified, can be based on the random variable $$ F=\frac{\sum_{1}^{n}\left(X_{i}-\bar{X}\right)^{2} /(n-1)}{\sum_{1}^{m}\left(Y_{i}-\bar{Y}\right)^{2} /(m-1)} $$

Given \(f(x ; \theta)=1 / \theta, 00\), formally compute the reciprocal of $$ n E\left\\{\left[\frac{\partial \log f(X: \theta)}{\partial \theta}\right]^{2}\right\\} $$ Compare this with the variance of \((n+1) Y_{n} / n\), where \(Y_{n}\) is the largest observation of a random sample of size \(n\) from this distribution. Comment.

Let \(X_{1}, X_{2}, \ldots, X_{n}\) be a random sample from a Bernoulli \(b(1, \theta)\) distribution, where \(0 \leq \theta<1\). (a) Show that the likelihood ratio test of \(H_{0}: \theta=\theta_{0}\) versus \(H_{1}: \theta \neq \theta_{0}\) is based upon the statistic \(Y=\sum_{i=1}^{n} X_{i} .\) Obtain the null distribution of \(Y\). (b) For \(n=100\) and \(\theta_{0}=1 / 2\), find \(c_{1}\) so that the test rejects \(H_{0}\) when \(Y \leq c_{1}\) or \(Y \geq c_{2}=100-c_{1}\) has the approximate significance level of \(\alpha=0.05 .\) Hint: Use the Central Limit Theorem.

Let \(X_{1}, X_{2}, \ldots, X_{n}\) represent a random sample from each of the distributions having the following pdfs: (a) \(f(x ; \theta)=\theta x^{\theta-1}, 0

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