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Let \(Y\) have a truncated distribution with pdf \(g(y)=\phi(y) /[\Phi(b)-\Phi(a)]\), for \(a

Short Answer

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The short answer is that the expectation of the truncated standard normal random variable Y as given, is indeed equal to \([\phi(a)-\phi(b)]/[\Phi(b)-\Phi(a)]\). The evaluation of this expectation used integration by parts in calculus, starting off with the definition of expectation for a continuous random variable.

Step by step solution

01

Understand the pdf of Y

This step is essential to lay a foundation for the problem. It is given that the probability density function of Y, denoted by \(g(y)\), is a truncated standard normal distribution defined as \(g(y)= \frac{\phi(y)}{\Phi(b)-\Phi(a)}\) for \(a<y<b\), and zero elsewhere, where \(\phi(x)\) and \(\Phi(x)\) are the pdf and distribution function of a standard normal distribution respectively.
02

Begin to Calculate the Expectation

The expectation or expected value of a random variable Y, denoted by \(E(Y)\) is defined as the integral of y times the pdf of Y. That is \(E(Y) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} y * g(y)dy\). However, because Y is truncated, we only have to integrate from a to b, so \(E(Y) = \int_{a}^{b} y* \frac{\phi(y)}{\Phi(b)-\Phi(a)} dy\). Now, using integration by parts where \(u=y\), \(dv= \frac{\phi(y)}{\Phi(b)-\Phi(a)}dy\), you obtain \(du=dy\) and \(v= -\frac{\phi(y)}{\Phi(b)-\Phi(a)}\).
03

Implement Integration by Parts

Integration by parts follows the rule: \(\int u dv = u*v - \int v du\). Implementing each calculated part, \(E(Y) = [-y*\frac{\phi(y)}{\Phi(b)-\Phi(a)}]_a^b + \int_a^b \frac{\phi(y)}{\Phi(b)-\Phi(a)} dy\). The last term is 1 (as it is a pdf and integrates to 1 over its range), hence the entire equation simplifies to \(E(Y) = [\phi(a)-\phi(b)]/[\Phi(b)-\Phi(a)]\), which was what was initially required to prove.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

The approximation discussed in Exercise \(3.2 .8\) can be made precise in the following way. Suppose \(X_{n}\) is binomial with the parameters \(n\) and \(p=\lambda / n\), for a given \(\lambda>0 .\) Let \(Y\) be Poisson with mean \(\lambda\). Show that \(P\left(X_{n}=k\right) \rightarrow P(Y=k)\), as \(n \rightarrow \infty\), for an arbitrary but fixed value of \(k\). Hint: First show that: $$ P\left(X_{n}=k\right)=\frac{\lambda^{k}}{k !}\left[\frac{n(n-1) \cdots(n-k+1)}{n^{k}}\left(1-\frac{\lambda}{n}\right)^{-k}\right]\left(1-\frac{\lambda}{n}\right)^{n} $$

Let \(X\) have a Poisson distribution. If \(P(X=1)=P(X=3)\), find the mode of the distribution.

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