Chapter 2: Problem 14
Given the integral \(\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{d x}{1+\cos ^{2} x}\). Make sure that the functions \(\mathrm{F}_{1}(\mathrm{x})=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \cos ^{-1} \frac{\sqrt{2} \cos \mathrm{x}}{\sqrt{1+\cos ^{2} \mathrm{x}}}\) and \(\mathrm{F}_{2}(\mathrm{x})=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \tan ^{-1} \frac{\tan \mathrm{x}}{\sqrt{2}}\) are antiderivatives for the integrand. Is it possible to use both antiderivatives for computing the definite integral by the NewtonLeibnitz formula? If not, which of the antiderivatives can be used?
Short Answer
Step by step solution
Key Concepts
These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.