Question

Complete.

If $\angle \mathbf{1}\cong \angle \mathbf{2}$, then$\underset{¯}{?}$ is the bisector of $\angle \underset{¯}{?}$.

Short answer

The complete statement is: If $\angle 1\cong \angle 2$, then$\mathbf{OK}$ is the bisector of $\angle \mathbf{JOT}$.

Step-by-step solution

Step 1. Observe the given diagram.

The given diagram is:

Step 2. Definition of the bisector of an angle.

A ray is said to be a bisector of an angle if it divides the angle into two equal angles.

Step 3. Complete the given statement.

From the given diagram it can be noticed that:

The ray $OK$is dividing the angle $JOT$in two equal angles as $\angle 1\cong \angle 2$.

Therefore, the complete statement is: If $\angle 1\cong \angle 2$, then $OK$is the bisector of $\angle JOT$.