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If \({\rm{F}}\)and\({\rm{G}}\)are vector fields and\({\rm{div F = div G}}\), then\({\rm{F = G}}\).

Short Answer

Expert verified

The given statement is false.

Step by step solution

01

Given.

\({\rm{F = i}}\)and \({\rm{G = j}}\)

\({\rm{divF = divG = 0}}\).

02

Explanation of false statement.

But \({\bf{F}} \ne {\rm{G}}\).

Therefore given statement is false.

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