Warning: foreach() argument must be of type array|object, bool given in /var/www/html/web/app/themes/studypress-core-theme/template-parts/header/mobile-offcanvas.php on line 20

Prove that if a function has an inverse function, then the inverse function is unique.

Short Answer

Expert verified
The inverse function of a given function is unique.

Step by step solution

01

Definition of a Function and its Inverse

By definition, a function \(f: A \rightarrow B\) has an inverse \(f^{-1}: B \rightarrow A\) if and only if for every \(b \in B\), there exists a unique \(a \in A\) such that \(f(a) = b\). Similarly, \(f^{-1}(b) = a\) whenever \(f(a) = b\).
02

Assume two inverse functions

Now, let's assume that a function \(f\) has two inverse functions, denoted as \(g\) and \(h\). That means for every \(b \in B\), there exists \(a \in A\) such that \(f(a) = b\) and both \(g(b) = a\) and \(h(b) = a\).
03

Conclude the uniqueness of the inverse function

From Step 2, both \(g(b)\) and \(h(b)\) return the same result \(a\), meaning \(g = h\). Therefore, the inverse function of \(f\) is unique.

Unlock Step-by-Step Solutions & Ace Your Exams!

  • Full Textbook Solutions

    Get detailed explanations and key concepts

  • Unlimited Al creation

    Al flashcards, explanations, exams and more...

  • Ads-free access

    To over 500 millions flashcards

  • Money-back guarantee

    We refund you if you fail your exam.

Over 30 million students worldwide already upgrade their learning with Vaia!

One App. One Place for Learning.

All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.

Get started for free

Study anywhere. Anytime. Across all devices.

Sign-up for free