Chapter 2: Problem 30
According to Theorem \(2.1 .2,\) the general solution of the linear nonhomogeneous equation $$ y^{\prime}+p(x) y=f(x) $$ is $$ y=y_{1}(x)\left(c+\int f(x) / y_{1}(x) d x\right). $$ where \(y_{1}\) is any nontrivial solution of the complementary equation \(y^{\prime}+p(x) y=0 .\) In this exercise we obtain this conclusion in a different way. You may find it instructive to apply the method suggested here to solve some of the exercises in Section 2.1 . (a) Rewrite (A) as $$ [p(x) y-f(x)] d x+d y=0, $$ and show that \(\mu=\pm e^{\int p(x) d x}\) is an integrating factor for (C). (b) Multiply (A) through by \(\mu=\pm e^{\int p(x) d x}\) and verify that the resulting equation can be rewritten as $$ (\mu(x) y)^{\prime}=\mu(x) f(x) $$ Then integrate both sides of this equation and solve for \(y\) to show that the general solution of (A) is $$ y=\frac{1}{\mu(x)}\left(c+\int f(x) \mu(x) d x\right). $$ Why is this form of the general solution equivalent to (B)?
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