According to Theorem \(2.1 .2,\) the general solution of the linear
nonhomogeneous equation
$$
y^{\prime}+p(x) y=f(x)
$$
is
$$
y=y_{1}(x)\left(c+\int f(x) / y_{1}(x) d x\right).
$$
where \(y_{1}\) is any nontrivial solution of the complementary equation
\(y^{\prime}+p(x) y=0 .\) In this exercise we obtain this conclusion in a
different way. You may find it instructive to apply the method suggested here
to solve some of the exercises in Section 2.1 .
(a) Rewrite (A) as
$$
[p(x) y-f(x)] d x+d y=0,
$$
and show that \(\mu=\pm e^{\int p(x) d x}\) is an integrating factor for (C).
(b) Multiply (A) through by \(\mu=\pm e^{\int p(x) d x}\) and verify that the
resulting equation can be rewritten as
$$
(\mu(x) y)^{\prime}=\mu(x) f(x)
$$
Then integrate both sides of this equation and solve for \(y\) to show that the
general solution of
(A) is
$$
y=\frac{1}{\mu(x)}\left(c+\int f(x) \mu(x) d x\right).
$$
Why is this form of the general solution equivalent to (B)?