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Determine whether there is any value of the constant \(a\) for which the problem has a solution. Find the solution for each such value. $$ y^{\prime \prime}+\pi^{2} y=a+x, \quad y(0)=0, \quad y(1)=0 $$

Short Answer

Expert verified
The value of \(a\) for which the problem admits a solution is \(a=-1\). The corresponding specific solution to the initial value problem is given by: $$ y(x)=\frac{1}{\pi^2}\cos(\pi x)+C_2\sin(\pi x)+\frac{1}{\pi^2}x-\frac{1}{\pi^2}, $$ where \(C_2\) can be any real number.

Step by step solution

01

Find the complementary solution

First, we will find the complementary function by solving the homogeneous version of the ODE given \(y''+\pi^2y=0\). This is a second-order linear homogeneous ODE with constant coefficients, the characteristic equation is: $$ r^2+\pi^2=0 $$ Solving the above equation for \(r\), we get complex conjugate roots \(r=\pm\pi i\). So, the complementary function is given by: $$ y_c(x)=C_1\cos(\pi x)+C_2\sin(\pi x) $$ where \(C_1\) and \(C_2\) are constants.
02

Find the particular solution

Now, we will find the particular solution for the inhomogeneous ODE. Since the non-homogeneous term is a linear function of \(x\), we will try a particular solution of the form: $$ y_p(x)=Ax+B $$ where \(A\) and \(B\) are constants that we need to determine. Taking the first and second derivatives of \(y_p(x)\), we get: $$ y_p'(x)=A, $$ and $$ y_p''(x)=0 $$ Now, substitute \(y_p(x)\) and its derivatives into the original inhomogeneous ODE: $$ 0+\pi^2(Ax+B)=a+x $$ Comparing coefficients, we have: $$ \begin{cases} \pi^2A=1, \\ \pi^2B=a. \end{cases} $$ Solving for \(A\) and \(B\), we get $$ A=\frac{1}{\pi^2},\quad B=\frac{a}{\pi^2} $$ Thus, the particular solution is $$ y_p(x)=\frac{1}{\pi^2}x+\frac{a}{\pi^2}. $$
03

Combine complementary and particular solutions

The general solution for \(y(x)\) is the sum of the complementary and particular solutions: $$ y(x)=y_c(x)+y_p(x)=C_1\cos(\pi x)+C_2\sin(\pi x)+\frac{1}{\pi^2}x+\frac{a}{\pi^2} $$
04

Apply initial conditions

Now, we will apply the given initial conditions \(y(0)=0\) and \(y(1)=0\). For the initial condition \(y(0)=0\), we have $$ 0=C_1\cos(0)+C_2\sin(0)+\frac{1}{\pi^2}(0)+\frac{a}{\pi^2} $$ This simplifies to $$ C_1+\frac{a}{\pi^2}=0 $$ For the initial condition \(y(1)=0\), we have $$ 0=C_1\cos(\pi)+C_2\sin(\pi)+\frac{1}{\pi^2}(1)+\frac{a}{\pi^2} $$ This simplifies to $$ -C_1+\frac{1}{\pi^2}+\frac{a}{\pi^2}=0 $$
05

Determine the value of constant \(a\)

Solving the equations obtained from the initial conditions, we get $$ \begin{cases} C_1+\frac{a}{\pi^2}=0, \\ -C_1+\frac{1}{\pi^2}+\frac{a}{\pi^2}=0. \end{cases} $$ Adding both equations, we get $$ \frac{a+1}{\pi^2}=0 $$ Solving for \(a\), we obtain the unique value of \(a\) for which the given problem has a solution: $$ a=-1 $$
06

Find the final solution

Substitute the found value of \(a\) into the general solution of \(y(x)\): $$ y(x)=C_1\cos(\pi x)+C_2\sin(\pi x)+\frac{1}{\pi^2}x-\frac{1}{\pi^2} $$ Now, we can use the initial condition \(y(0)=0\) to find the constant \(C_1\): $$ 0=C_1-\frac{1}{\pi^2} $$ Solving for \(C_1\), we have $$ C_1=\frac{1}{\pi^2} $$ Thus, the solution for \(y(x)\) and the given value of \(a=-1\) is $$ y(x)=\frac{1}{\pi^2}\cos(\pi x)+C_2\sin(\pi x)+\frac{1}{\pi^2}x-\frac{1}{\pi^2} $$ Since we already satisfied both initial conditions, the constant \(C_2\) can be any real number, giving a family of solutions for \(y(x)\).

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Most popular questions from this chapter

The wave equation in polar coordinates is $$ u_{r r}+(1 / r) u_{r}+\left(1 / r^{2}\right) u_{\theta \theta}=a^{-2} u_{t t} $$ Show that if \(u(r, \theta, t)=R(r) \Theta(\theta) T(t),\) then \(R, \Theta,\) and \(T\) satisfy the ordinary differential equations $$ \begin{aligned} r^{2} R^{\prime \prime}+r R^{\prime}+\left(\lambda^{2} r^{2}-n^{2}\right) R &=0 \\ \Theta^{\prime \prime}+n^{2} \Theta &=0 \\\ T^{\prime \prime}+\lambda^{2} a^{2} T &=0 \end{aligned} $$

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Find a formal solution of the nonhomogencous boundary value problem $$ -\left(x y^{\prime}\right)^{\prime}=\mu x y+f(x) $$ \(y, y^{\prime}\) bounded as \(x \rightarrow 0, \quad y(1)=0\) where \(f\) is a given continuous function on \(0 \leq x \leq 1,\) and \(\mu\) is not an eigenvalue of the corresponding homogeneous problem. Hint: Use a series expansion similar to those in Section \(11.3 .\)

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