Warning: foreach() argument must be of type array|object, bool given in /var/www/html/web/app/themes/studypress-core-theme/template-parts/header/mobile-offcanvas.php on line 20

$\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\ell n\left(1+x+x^{2}\right)+\ell n\left(1-x+x^{2}\right)}{\sec x-\cos x}$ is equal to (A) 1 (B) \(-1\) (C) 0 (D) \(\infty\)

Short Answer

Expert verified
In order to find the limit of the given expression as x approaches 0, we first checked if the expression resulted in an indeterminate form (\(\frac{0}{0}\)). Since it did, we applied L'Hôpital's rule to simplify the expression and reevaluate the limit. Upon applying L'Hôpital's rule twice, the final limit of the expression was found to be 0. Therefore, the correct answer is (C) 0.

Step by step solution

01

Check if the expression is an indeterminate form

First, let us evaluate the given expression as x approaches 0. Numerator: \(\lim_{x\to 0} \ln(1+x+x^2) = \ln(1+0+0) = \ln(1) = 0\) \(\lim_{x\to 0} \ln(1-x+x^2) = \ln(1-0+0) = \ln(1) = 0\) Denominator: \(\lim_{x\to 0} \sec(x) = \sec(0) = 1\) \(\lim_{x\to 0} \cos(x) = \cos(0) = 1\) So, the expression becomes: \(\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{0 + 0}{1 - 1} = \frac{0}{0}\) Thus, the expression is an indeterminate form. Let's apply L'Hôpital's rule.
02

Apply L'Hôpital's Rule

Applying L'Hôpital's rule, we differentiate the numerator and the denominator separately with respect to x. Then, we find the limit of the new expression. Differentiate the Numerator: \(\frac{d}{dx}(\ln(1+x+x^2) + \ln(1-x+x^2)) = \frac{1 + 2x}{1+x+x^2} + \frac{-1 + 2x}{1-x+x^2}\) Differentiate the Denominator: \(\frac{d}{dx}(\sec x - \cos x) = \sec x \tan x + \sin x\) New expression: \(\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\frac{1 + 2x}{1+x+x^2} + \frac{-1 + 2x}{1-x+x^2}}{\sec x \tan x + \sin x}\)
03

Evaluate the limit of the new expression

Now, let us evaluate the limit of the new expression as x approaches 0: Numerator: \(\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{1 + 2x}{1+x+x^2} = \frac{1}{1} = 1\) \(\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{-1 + 2x}{1-x+x^2} = \frac{-1}{1} = -1\) Denominator: \(\lim_{x\to 0}\sec x \tan x = \sec(0)\tan(0) = 1\cdot 0 = 0\) \(\lim_{x\to 0}\sin x = \sin(0) = 0\) So, the expression becomes: \(\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{1 -1}{0 +0} = \frac{0}{0}\) Since it is still an indeterminate form, let us apply L'Hôpital's rule again.
04

Apply L'Hôpital's Rule again

Differentiate the new numerator and the denominator, and then find the limit again: Differentiate the Numerator: \(\frac{d}{dx}(\frac{1 + 2x}{1+x+x^2} - \frac{-1 + 2x}{1-x+x^2}) = \frac{2}{(1+x+x^2)^2} - \frac{2}{(1-x+x^2)^2}\) Differentiate the Denominator: \(\frac{d}{dx}(\sec x \tan x + \sin x) = \sec x(\sec^2 x + \tan^2 x) + \cos x\) New expression: \(\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\frac{2}{(1+x+x^2)^2} - \frac{2}{(1-x+x^2)^2}}{\sec x(\sec^2 x + \tan^2 x) + \cos x}\)
05

Evaluate the limit of the new expression

Now, let's again evaluate the limit as x approaches 0: Numerator: \(\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{2}{(1+x+x^2)^2} = \frac{2}{1} = 2\) \(\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{-2}{(1-x+x^2)^2} = \frac{-2}{1} = -2\) Denominator: \(\lim_{x\to 0} \sec x(\sec^2 x + \tan^2 x) = 1(1^2+0) = 1\) \(\lim_{x\to 0} \cos x = \cos(0) = 1\) So, the expression becomes: \(\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{2 -2}{1 +1} = \frac{0}{2}= 0\) Hence, the answer is (C) 0.

Unlock Step-by-Step Solutions & Ace Your Exams!

  • Full Textbook Solutions

    Get detailed explanations and key concepts

  • Unlimited Al creation

    Al flashcards, explanations, exams and more...

  • Ads-free access

    To over 500 millions flashcards

  • Money-back guarantee

    We refund you if you fail your exam.

Over 30 million students worldwide already upgrade their learning with Vaia!

One App. One Place for Learning.

All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.

Get started for free

Most popular questions from this chapter

If $\mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x})=\lim _{\mathrm{n} \rightarrow \infty} \frac{2 \mathrm{x}}{\pi} \tan ^{-1} \mathrm{nx}\(, then value of \)\lim _{\mathrm{x} \rightarrow 0}[\mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x})-1]$ is, where [.] represents greatest integer function (A) 0 (B) \(-1\) (C) 1 (D) does not exist

Consider the function \(f(x)=\cos ^{-1}[\cot x]\) where [ ] indicates greatest integer function. Assertion (A): \(\lim _{x \rightarrow \frac{\pi}{2}} f(x)\) exists Reason \((\mathbf{R}):\) Both \(\lim \mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x})\) and $\lim \mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x})$ are finite. \(x \rightarrow \frac{\pi}{2} \quad x \rightarrow \frac{\pi}{2}\)

If \(\mathrm{a}, \mathrm{b}\) and \(\mathrm{c}\) are real numbers then the value of $\lim _{t \rightarrow 0} \ln \left(\frac{1}{t} \int_{0}^{t}(1+a \sin b x)^{\mathrm{c} / x} d x\right)$ equals (A) \(a b c\) (B) \(\frac{a b}{c}\) (C) \(\frac{b c}{a}\) (D) \(\frac{\mathrm{ca}}{\mathrm{b}}\)

$\lim _{x \rightarrow-\infty}\left\\{x+\sqrt{x^{2}+3 x \cos \frac{1}{|x|}}\right\\}$ is equal to (A) \(3 / 2\) (B) \(-3 / 2\) (C) \(-1\) (D) none of these

The false statement(s) is / are (A) If \(\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{x})\) is a polynomial, then the function \(\mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x})=\frac{\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{x})}{\mathrm{x}-1}\) has a vertical asymptote at \(\mathrm{x}=1\). (B) A polynomial function has no vertical asymptote and a rational function has atleast one vertical asymptote. (C) If \(\mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x})\) has a vertical asymptote at \(\mathrm{x}=0\), then \(\mathrm{f}\) is undefined at \(\mathrm{x}=0\). (D) A function can have move than two horizontal asymptotes.

See all solutions

Recommended explanations on Math Textbooks

View all explanations

What do you think about this solution?

We value your feedback to improve our textbook solutions.

Study anywhere. Anytime. Across all devices.

Sign-up for free