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Use the limit comparison test to determine whether each of the following series converges or diverges. $$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{1}{n}-\sin \left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\right) $$

Short Answer

Expert verified
The series converges.

Step by step solution

01

Identify the Comparison Series

We begin by examining the term \(a_n = \frac{1}{n} - \sin\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\). For large \(n\), \(\sin\left(\frac{1}{n}\right) \approx \frac{1}{n}\) because \(\sin(x) \approx x\) when \(x\) is close to zero. Thus, for large \(n\), \(a_n \approx 0\). We will use \(b_n = \frac{1}{n^2}\) as the comparison series based on this simplification.
02

Compute the Limit of the Ratio of Terms

We now find the limit \(L = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{a_n}{b_n}\). This becomes:\[L = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\frac{1}{n} - \sin\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}{\frac{1}{n^2}} = \lim_{n \to \infty} n^2 \left(\frac{1}{n} - \sin\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\right)\]This can be simplified as:\[L = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left(n - n^2 \cdot \sin\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\right)\]
03

Simplify the Limit Expression

We simplify the right side of the expression:\[L = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left(n - n \cdot n \cdot \sin\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\right)\]Using the approximation \(\sin\left(\frac{1}{n}\right) \approx \frac{1}{n}\), we get:\[L = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left(n - n \cdot n \cdot \frac{1}{n}\right)\]\[L = \lim_{n \to \infty} (n - n) = 0\]
04

Apply the Limit Comparison Test Conclusion

The limit \(L = 0\) indicates that \(\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{a_n}{b_n} = 0\), which means \(a_n\) behaves similar to \(b_n\) for large \(n\).\ The series \(\sum \frac{1}{n^2}\) is known to converge by the p-series test (\(p = 2 > 1\)).\ Therefore, by the limit comparison test, the given series \(\sum \left( \frac{1}{n} - \sin\left(\frac{1}{n}\right) \right)\) also converges.

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Key Concepts

These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.

Convergence of Series
Convergence in a series occurs when the sum of its terms approaches a specific value, rather than growing indefinitely. In mathematics, determining whether a series converges is essential for understanding its overall behavior, especially when dealing with infinite series.

When you have a series, like \[ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n \]analyzing its individual terms, \(a_n\), helps determine if the series converges. If the terms \(a_n\) do not approach zero, the series will definitely diverge.

However, even if they do approach zero, further examination is needed to confirm convergence. Techniques such as the limit comparison test come in handy here, allowing us to compare the series in question with a known converging series to draw conclusions about convergence.
P-Series Test
The p-series test is a simple yet powerful tool in determining the convergence of a series. A p-series is defined as:
\[ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^p}\]
where \(p\) is a real number.- **Convergence**: The series converges if \(p > 1\).- **Divergence**: The series diverges if \(p \leq 1\).

In the original problem, the comparison series was \( \sum \frac{1}{n^2} \). This is a typical p-series with \(p = 2\), which is greater than 1, indicating convergence. By comparing the given series with this known converging p-series, we can confidently conclude the behavior of the original series using the limit comparison test.
Sin Approximation
The sine function, \(\sin(x)\), is often approximated for small values of \(x\). One popular approximation is \(\sin(x) \approx x\), especially when \(x\) is approaching zero.

In the original exercise, this approximation is crucial. When looking at the expression \(\sin\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\) for large \(n\), \(\frac{1}{n}\) tends towards zero. This means \(\sin\left(\frac{1}{n}\right) \approx \frac{1}{n}\).

Utilizing this approximation simplifies the analysis of the series \(\frac{1}{n} - \sin\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\), allowing for a more straightforward application of the limit comparison test by making the behavior of the series terms clearer.
Infinite Series
An infinite series is simply a sum of infinitely many terms. It's denoted as:\[ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n \]
Infinite series are foundational in mathematical analysis, and they appear in various fields such as calculus and complex analysis.

Assessing whether such a series converges or diverges requires careful examination of its terms. If an infinite series converges, the sum of its terms approaches a finite value, despite the infinite nature of the series.
  • **Convergent Series**: The terms add up to a finite limit.
  • **Divergent Series**: The sum grows without bounds or oscillates.
Study aids like the limit comparison test and the p-series test provide methods to determine the convergence or divergence of infinite series, making complex problems more approachable.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

The following series do not satisfy the hypotheses of the alternating series test as stated. In each case, state which hypothesis is not satisfied. State whether the series converges absolutely.Sometimes the alternating series \(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^{n-1} b_{n}\) converges to a certain fraction of an absolutely convergent series \(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} b_{n}\) a faster rate. Given that \(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^{2}}=\frac{\pi^{2}}{6}\), find \(S=1-\frac{1}{2^{2}}+\frac{1}{3^{2}}-\frac{1}{4^{2}}+\cdots .\) Which of the series \(6 \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^{2}}\) and \(S \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n^{2}}\) gives a better estimation of \(\pi^{2}\) using 1000 terms?

The following series converge by the ratio test. Use summation by parts, \(\sum_{k=1}^{n} a_{k}\left(b_{k+1}-b_{k}\right)=\left[a_{n+1} b_{n+1}-a_{1} b_{1}\right]-\sum_{k=1}^{n} b_{k+1}\left(a_{k+1}-a_{k}\right)\), to find the sum of the given series. $$ \left.\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{k}{2^{k}} \text { (Hint: Take } a_{k}=k \text { and } b_{k}=2^{1-k} .\right) $$

For the following exercises, indicate whether each of the following statements is true or false. If the statement is false, provide an example in which it is false.Suppose that \(a_{n}\) is a sequence of positive real numbers and that \(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_{n}\) converges. Suppose that \(b_{n}\) is an arbitrary sequence of ones and minus ones. Does \(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_{n} b_{n}\) necessarily converge?

The following series converge by the ratio test. Use summation by parts, \(\sum_{k=1}^{n} a_{k}\left(b_{k+1}-b_{k}\right)=\left[a_{n+1} b_{n+1}-a_{1} b_{1}\right]-\sum_{k=1}^{n} b_{k+1}\left(a_{k+1}-a_{k}\right)\), to find the sum of the given series. $$ \left.\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{k}{c^{k}}, \text { where } c>1 \text { (Hint: Take } a_{k}=k \text { and } b_{k}=c^{1-k} /(c-1) .\right) $$

The following advanced exercises use a generalized ratio test to determine convergence of some series that arise in particular applications when tests in this chapter, including the ratio and root test, are not powerful enough to determine their convergence. The test states that if \(\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{a_{2 n}}{a_{n}}<1 / 2\), then \(\sum a_{n}\) converges, while if \(\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{a_{2 n+1}}{a_{n}}>1 / 2\), then \(\sum a_{n}\) diverges. Let \(a_{n}=\frac{\pi^{\ln n}}{(\ln n)^{n}} .\) Show that \(\frac{a_{2 n}}{a_{n}} \rightarrow 0\) as \(n \rightarrow \infty\).

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