Warning: foreach() argument must be of type array|object, bool given in /var/www/html/web/app/themes/studypress-core-theme/template-parts/header/mobile-offcanvas.php on line 20

Show that \(L=\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty}\left(\frac{1}{n} \ln n !-\ln n\right)=-1\) in the following steps. a. Note that \(n !=n(n-1)(n-2) \cdots 1\) and use \(\ln (a b)=\ln a+\ln b\) to show that $$ \begin{aligned} L &=\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty}\left[\left(\frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \ln k\right)-\ln n\right] \\ &=\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \ln \left(\frac{k}{n}\right) \end{aligned} $$ b. Identify the limit of this sum as a Riemann sum for \(\int_{0}^{1} \ln x d x\) Integrate this improper integral by parts and reach the desired conclusion.

Short Answer

Expert verified
Question: Show that the following limit is true: \(\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \left(\frac{1}{n}\ln n! - \ln n\right) = -1\). Solution: By rewriting the given expression as a Riemann sum, identifying the corresponding improper integral, evaluating it using integration by parts, and taking the limit of the integral, we have shown that the given limit equals -1.

Step by step solution

01

Rewrite the expression as a Riemann sum

: Given \(L = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \left(\frac{1}{n}\ln n! - \ln n\right)\), let's start by observing that \(n! = n(n-1)(n-2)\cdots1\) and use the logarithmic property that \(\ln(ab) = \ln a + \ln b\). $$ \begin{aligned} L &= \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \left(\frac{1}{n}\ln n! - \ln n\right) \\ &= \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \left(\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\ln k - \ln n\right) \\ &= \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \left[\left(\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\ln k\right) - \ln n\right]\\ &= \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \ln\left(\frac{k}{n}\right) \end{aligned} $$
02

Identify the Riemann sum

: Now, let's observe that the given expression represents a Riemann sum for the improper integral \(\int_{0}^{1}\ln x\ dx\). To see this, recall that a Riemann sum is given by \(\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{i=1}^{n}f(x_i^*)\Delta x\), where \(x_i^*\) are points in the subintervals and \(\Delta x = \frac{b-a}{n}\). In this case, \(a=0\), \(b=1\), \(\Delta x = \frac{1}{n}\), and \(x_i^* = \frac{k}{n}\), hence $$ L = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \ln\left(\frac{k}{n}\right) = \int_{0}^{1} \ln x\ dx $$
03

Integrate by parts

: To evaluate the improper integral, we will use integration by parts. Recall that integration by parts is given by \(\int u\ dv = uv - \int v\ du\). Let \(u=\ln x\) and \(dv=dx\). Differentiate \(u\) and integrate \(dv\) to get \(du=\frac{1}{x}dx\) and \(v=x\). Now apply the integration by parts formula: $$ \begin{aligned} \int_{0}^{1} \ln x\ dx &= \int u\ dv \\ &= uv - \int v\ du \\ &= x\ln x - \int x\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) dx \\ &= x\ln x - \int dx \\ &= x\ln x - x \end{aligned} $$
04

Evaluate the limit of the integral

: Finally, let's evaluate the improper integral by taking the limit as the bounds approach 0 and 1: $$ \begin{aligned} L &= \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left(\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\ln\frac{k}{n}\right) \\ &= \int_{0}^{1} \ln x\ dx \\ &= \left[\lim_{x\rightarrow 0^+}(x \ln x - x)\right]-\left[\lim_{x\rightarrow 1^-}(x \ln x - x)\right] \\ &= (0 - 0) - (1\cdot 0 - 1) \\ &= -1 \end{aligned} $$ Therefore, we have shown that \(L=\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left(\frac{1}{n}\ln n!-\ln n\right)=-1\).

Unlock Step-by-Step Solutions & Ace Your Exams!

  • Full Textbook Solutions

    Get detailed explanations and key concepts

  • Unlimited Al creation

    Al flashcards, explanations, exams and more...

  • Ads-free access

    To over 500 millions flashcards

  • Money-back guarantee

    We refund you if you fail your exam.

Over 30 million students worldwide already upgrade their learning with Vaia!

Key Concepts

These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.

Riemann Sum
Riemann sums are a key concept in calculus used to approximate the total area underneath a curve. It's a method that breaks the area into small rectangles whose areas are easy to add up. The sum of these rectangles approaches the exact area as the width of the rectangles decreases.
To understand the Riemann sum in our problem, consider the expression \( \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \ln \left(\frac{k}{n}\right) \). This is a classic example of how Riemann sums approximate an integral.
  • Divide the interval from 0 to 1 into \( n \) equal parts.
  • The function we are integrating is \( \ln x \), evaluated at sample points \( \frac{k}{n} \).
  • As \( n \) increases, the approximation becomes more accurate, mathematically approaching the integral \( \int_{0}^{1} \ln x\, dx \).
This approach vividly illustrates how Riemann sums can transform complex problems into more manageable forms by using simple geometric concepts.
Improper Integral
Improper integrals are used when integrating over an interval that is unbounded or where the function has an infinite discontinuity. For our case, \( \int_{0}^{1} \ln x\, dx \) needs careful evaluation because \( \ln x \) tends towards minus infinity as \( x \to 0^+ \).
  • This is why it is called ‘improper’—the limit has to be taken to evaluate it properly.
  • To compute this integral, it’s essential first to transform it into a limit problem.
The core idea is to evaluate the integral from some positive \( \varepsilon \) to 1, and then take the limit as \( \varepsilon \to 0^+ \). This ensures that we are carefully managing the behavior of \( \ln x \) near zero so the solution can progressively encompass the entire range from 0 to 1.
Integration by Parts
Integration by parts is a powerful technique used to integrate products of functions. It is based on the product rule for differentiation and reverses the process of differentiation under the integral sign.
  • The formula \( \int u\, dv = uv - \int v\, du \) is used here effectively.
In the context of our problem, we set \( u = \ln x \) and \( dv = dx \). Differentiating and integrating these terms gives us \( du = \frac{1}{x} dx \) and \( v = x \).
  • Plug these values into the integration by parts formula to rework the integral.
  • Compute the residual integral \( \int v\, du = \int 1\, dx \) which simplifies to \( x \).
Through these steps, we simplify and evaluate the original integral \( \int_{0}^{1} \ln x\, dx \). This method effectively leverages the interaction between the two chosen functions, allowing us to evaluate otherwise challenging integrals.

One App. One Place for Learning.

All the tools & learning materials you need for study success - in one app.

Get started for free

Most popular questions from this chapter

Graph the function \(f(x)=\frac{\sqrt{x^{2}-9}}{x}\) and consider the region bounded by the curve and the \(x\) -axis on \([-6,-3] .\) Then evaluate \(\int_{-6}^{-3} \frac{\sqrt{x^{2}-9}}{x} d x .\) Be sure the result is consistent with the graph.

An integrand with trigonometric functions in the numerator and denominator can often be converted to a rational integrand using the substitution \(u=\tan (x / 2)\) or \(x=2 \tan ^{-1} u .\) The following relations are used in making this change of variables. $$A: d x=\frac{2}{1+u^{2}} d u \quad B: \sin x=\frac{2 u}{1+u^{2}} \quad C: \cos x=\frac{1-u^{2}}{1+u^{2}}$$ $$\text { Evaluate } \int \frac{d x}{1+\sin x+\cos x}$$

The work required to launch an object from the surface of Earth to outer space is given by \(W=\int_{R}^{\infty} F(x) d x,\) where \(R=6370 \mathrm{km}\) is the approximate radius of Earth, \(F(x)=G M m / x^{2}\) is the gravitational force between Earth and the object, \(G\) is the gravitational constant, \(M\) is the mass of Earth, \(m\) is the mass of the object, and \(G M=4 \times 10^{14} \mathrm{m}^{3} / \mathrm{s}^{2}.\) a. Find the work required to launch an object in terms of \(m.\) b. What escape velocity \(v_{e}\) is required to give the object a kinetic energy \(\frac{1}{2} m v_{e}^{2}\) equal to \(W ?\) c. The French scientist Laplace anticipated the existence of black holes in the 18th century with the following argument: If a body has an escape velocity that equals or exceeds the speed of light, \(c=300,000 \mathrm{km} / \mathrm{s},\) then light cannot escape the body and it cannot be seen. Show that such a body has a radius \(R \leq 2 G M / c^{2} .\) For Earth to be a black hole, what would its radius need to be?

\(A\) powerful tool in solving problems in engineering and physics is the Laplace transform. Given a function \(f(t),\) the Laplace transform is a new function \(F(s)\) defined by $$ F(s)=\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-s t} f(t) d t $$ where we assume that s is a positive real number. For example, to find the Laplace transform of \(f(t)=e^{-t},\) the following improper integral is evaluated: $$ F(s)=\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-s t} e^{-t} d t=\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-(s+1) t} d t=\frac{1}{s+1} $$ Verify the following Laplace transforms, where a is a real number. $$f(t)=e^{a t} \longrightarrow F(s)=\frac{1}{s-a}$$

Evaluate the following integrals. $$\int \frac{1}{\left(y^{2}+1\right)\left(y^{2}+2\right)} d y$$

See all solutions

Recommended explanations on Math Textbooks

View all explanations

What do you think about this solution?

We value your feedback to improve our textbook solutions.

Study anywhere. Anytime. Across all devices.

Sign-up for free