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Let Gbe an abelian group of ordern and letK be a positive integer. If (k,n)=1, prove that the functionrole="math" localid="1654351034332" f:GG given byf(a)=ak is an isomorphism.

Short Answer

Expert verified

It is proved thatf is isomorphism.

Step by step solution

01

Determine function is an isomorphism

Consider the given functions, Gis the abelian group of order nand kis the positive integer, so that (n,k)=1.

Firstly observe that,

g,hGthen,

f(gh)=(gh)k=gkhk=f(g)f(h)

Here, second equality holds asG is abelian. Therefore,f is a group of isomorphism.

02

Determine further simplification of function is an isomorphism

Now let’s consider, gGso that f(g)=e. That means,

gk=e

That implies that the order of gdividesk.

By Lagrange’s theorem it is clear that the order of gdivides the order of G.

Therefore, it is clear that, gis the common divisor for kand n. But as(n,k)=1then the order of g=1. Thusg=e.

Now, g1,g2Gthen,

role="math" localid="1654351546623" f(g1)=f(g2)

That is,

g1k=g2k

Implies that,

(g1g21)k=e

Form above all equations it is clear that, fis injective.

03

Determine whether further simplification of function is an isomorphism

AsGis a finite set andf:GGis the injective function and alsofin surjective.

As,(n,k)=1there exist two integers xand y, so that,

nx+ky=1

Thus it follows ,hG

h=hnx+ky=hnxhky=f(hy)

The equality follows corollary 8.6, thus hG,

f(hy)=h

Herey is an integer, so that (n,k)=1 for some integer x.

Therefore,f is surjective.

And hencef is isomorphism.

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