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Letf:GG be given by, f(a)=a1. Prove that fis a bijection.

Short Answer

Expert verified

It is proved thatf is a bijection.

Step by step solution

01

Bijective mapping

A mapping f:ABis said to be bijective if it is both injective and surjective. If

  • x1x2inA implies f(x1)f(x2)inB .
  • f(A)=B.
02

To prove injective

Let a,bGsuch that,f(a)=f(b)

.a1=b1

Multiplying by from the right and then by bfrom the left, we get,

a(a1)b=a(b1)b(aa1)b=a(b1b)eb=aea=b

which shows that,f is injective.

03

Final conclusion

LetbG be arbitrary.Now, we will show that aG, such that,

f(a)=b

.a1=b Now, multiplying by b1from the left and by from the right we get,

a(a1)b1=a(b)b1(aa1)b1=a(bb1)b1=a

It shows thatf is surjective.

Hence,f is a bijection.

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