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Let 0 be an absorbing state in a success runs Markov chain \(\left\\{X_{n}\right\\}\) having Irunsition probabilities \(P_{00}=1\) and \(P_{i, i+1}=p_{i}=1-P_{l, 0}\) for \(i=1,2, \ldots . .\) ??uppose \(p_{i} \geq p_{i+1} \geq \ldots\), and let \(a\) be the unique value for which \(a p_{a-1} /(a-1)>\) \(\mathrm{I} \cdot(a+1) p_{a} / a .\) Define $$ f(i)= \begin{cases}0, & \text { for } \quad i=0 \\ a p_{i} p_{i+1} \cdots p_{a-1}, & \text { for } \quad 1 \leq i

Short Answer

Expert verified
The unique value \(a\) can be determined from the given conditions: \(a p_{a-1} / (a - 1) > I \cdot (a + 1) p_a / a\) and \(p_{i} \geq p_{i+1} \geq \ldots\), given that the success-run Markov chain has an absorbing state at 0 and certain transition probabilities. Using this value of \(a\), we can define the function \(f(i)\) as: $$ f(i)= \begin{cases}0, & \text { for } \quad i=0 \\\ a p_{i} p_{i+1} \cdots p_{a-1}, & \text { for } \quad 1 \leq i<a \\\ i, & \text { for } \quad i \geq a\end{cases} $$ This function describes the state of the Markov chain based on the given probability inequalities and the unique value \(a\).

Step by step solution

01

To find the unique value \(a\), we need to use the inequalities provided: \(a p_{a-1} / (a - 1) > I \cdot (a + 1) p_a / a\). Since \(p_{i} \geq p_{i+1} \geq \ldots\), there exists a unique value \(a\) for which this inequality holds. #Step 2: Define the function f(i)#

Now that we have the unique value \(a\), we can define the function \(f(i)\) as given in the exercise. $$ f(i)= \begin{cases}0, & \text { for } \quad i=0 \\\ a p_{i} p_{i+1} \cdots p_{a-1}, & \text { for } \quad 1 \leq i<a \\\ i, & \text { for } \quad i \geq a\end{cases} $$ We have constructed the function \(f(i)\) based on the given transition probabilities and the unique value \(a\). This function will describe the state of the Markov chain depending on the probability inequalities and the unique value \(a\).

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Most popular questions from this chapter

The Haar functions on \([0,1)\) are defined by $$ \begin{gathered} H_{1}(t)=1 \\ H_{2}(t)= \begin{cases}1, & 0 \leq t<\frac{1}{2}, \\ -1, \quad \frac{1}{2} \leq t<1,\end{cases} \\ H_{2^{n+1}}(t)=\left\\{\begin{array}{cl} 2^{n / 2}, & 0 \leq t<2^{-(n+1)}, \\ -2^{n / 2} & 2^{-(n+1)} \leq t<2^{-n}, \quad n=1,2, \ldots, \\ 0, & \text { otherwise } \end{array}\right. \\ H_{2^{n+}}(t)=H_{2^{n}+1}\left(t-\frac{j-1}{2^{n}}\right) . \quad j=1, \ldots, 2^{n} \end{gathered} $$ It helps to plot the first five. Let \(f(z)\) be an arbitrary function on \([0,1]\) but satisfying $$ \int_{0}^{1}|f(z)| d z<\infty $$ Define \(a_{k}=\int_{0}^{1} f(t) H_{k}(t) d t\). Let \(Z\) be uniformly distributed on \([0,1]\). Show that and $$ f(Z)=\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} \sum_{k=1}^{n} a_{k} H_{k}(Z) \quad \text { with probability one, } $$ $$ \lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} \int_{0}^{1}\left|f(t)-\sum_{k=1}^{n} a_{k} H_{k}(t)\right| d t=0 $$

Let \(\left\\{X_{n}\right\\}\) be a martingale for which \(Y=\sup _{n}\left|X_{n+1}-X_{n}\right|\) has a finite mean. Let \(A_{1}\) be the event that \(\left\\{X_{n}\right\\}\) converges and \(A_{2}\) the event that \(\lim \sup X_{n}=+\infty\) and \(\lim \inf X_{n}=-\infty .\) Show that \(\operatorname{Pr}\left\\{A_{1}\right\\}+\operatorname{Pr}\left\\{A_{2}\right\\}=1\). In words, \(\left\\{X_{n}\right\\}\) either converges, or oscillates very greatly indeed.

Let \(X\) be a random variable for which $$ \operatorname{Pr}\\{-\varepsilon \leq X \leq+\varepsilon\\}=1 $$ and $$ E[X] \leq-\rho \varepsilon $$ where \(\varepsilon>0\) and \(\rho>0\) are given. Show that $$ E\left[e^{\lambda X}\right] \leq 1 $$ for \(\lambda=\varepsilon^{-1} \log [(1+\rho) /(1-\rho)]\). Apply the result of Problem 17 to bound $$ \operatorname{Pr}\left\\{\sup _{n \geq 0}\left(x+S_{n}\right)>l\right\\}, \quad \text { for } \quad x

Suppose \(X_{1}, X_{2}, \ldots\) are independent random variables having finite moment generating functions \(\varphi_{k}(t)=E\left[\exp \left\\{t X_{k}\right\\}\right]\). Show, if \(\Phi_{n}\left(t_{0}\right)=\prod_{k=1}^{n} \varphi_{k}\left(t_{0}\right) \rightarrow\) \(\mathrm{D}\left(t_{0}\right)\) as \(n \rightarrow \infty, t_{0} \neq 0\) and \(0<\Phi\left(t_{0}\right)<\infty\), then \(S_{n}=X_{1}+\cdots+X_{n}\) converges with prohability one.

Let \(X, X_{1}, X_{2}, \ldots\) be independent identically distributed random varialhi'm having negative mean \(\mu\) and finite variance \(\sigma^{2}\). With \(S_{0}=0\) and \(S_{n}=X_{1}\) ? \(\cdots+X_{n}\), set \(M=\max _{n \geq 0} S_{n} .\) In view of \(\mu<0\), we know that \(M<\infty .\) Assumi \(E[M]<\infty\). (In fact, it can be shown that this is a consequence of \(\sigma^{2}<\infty\).) Define \(r(x)=x^{+}=\max \\{x, 0\\}\) and \(f(x)=E\left[(x+M-E[M])^{+}\right]\) (a) Show \(f(x) \geq r(x)\) for all \(x\). (b) Show \(f(x) \geq E[f(x+X)]\) for all \(x\), so that \(\left\\{f\left(x+S_{n}\right)\right\\}\) is a nonnegative supermartingale [Hint: Verify and use the fact that \(M\) and \((X+M)^{+}\)have the same distribution.] (c) Use (a) and (b) to show \(f(x) \geq E\left[\left(x+S_{T}\right)^{+}\right]\)for all Markov times \(T .\left[\left(x+S_{\infty}\right)^{+}=\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty}\left(X+S_{n}\right)^{+}=0 .\right]\)

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