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Let \(L\) and \(R\) be randomly chosen interval endpoints having an arbitrary juint distribution, but, of course, \(L \leq R\). Let \(p(x)=\operatorname{Pr}\\{L \leq x \leq R\\}\) be the probability the interval covers the point \(x\), and let \(X=R-L\) be the length of the interval. Establish the formula \(E[X]=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} p(x) d x\).

Short Answer

Expert verified
In this problem, we have interval endpoints \(L\) and \(R\) with \(L \leq R\), and a probability function \(p(x)\) representing the probability that the interval covers point \(x\). We want to establish the formula \(E[X]=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} p(x) d x\), where \(X = R-L\). By expressing \(E[X]\) as an integral and calculating the probability density function \(f(x)\) using \(p(x)\), we obtain \(E[X] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x \left( \int \frac{d}{dx}p(x) dx\right) dx\). Changing the order of integration and evaluating the resulting expression, we find that \(E[X]=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} p(x) d x\), which establishes the desired formula.

Step by step solution

01

Write down the formula for Expected Value (mean) of continuous random variable

Recall that for a continuous random variable \(X\) with probability density function \(f(x)\), the expected value (mean) \(E[X]\) can be calculated as: \[E[X] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x f(x) dx\] In our case, \(X = R - L\), so we first have to find the probability density function \(f(x)\) of the length of the interval \(X\).
02

Calculate \(f(x)\) using \(p(x)\)

Given the probability function \(p(x)=\operatorname{Pr}\{L \leq x \leq R\}\), we can calculate the probability density function \(f(x)\) of \(X=R-L\) by using the fact that \[p(x) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x-y)dy\] So, let's differentiate both sides of this equation with respect to \(x\) to find \(f(x)\) in terms of \(p(x)\): \[\frac{d}{dx}p(x) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{d}{dx}f(x-y)dy\] Then we can interchange the order of integration and differentiation: \[\frac{d}{dx}p(x) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty f'(x-y)dy\] Now, we have the first derivative of \(f(x)\) in terms of \(p(x)\). We can integrate back with respect to \(x\) to obtain \(f(x)\): \[f(x) = \int \frac{d}{dx}p(x) dx\]
03

Calculate \(E[X]\) using the derived probability density function \(f(x)\)

Now that we have expressed \(f(x)\) in terms of \(p(x)\), we can plug it into the formula for expected value (mean) from Step 1: \[E[X] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x \left( \int \frac{d}{dx}p(x) dx\right) dx\] Now, let's change the order of integration: \[E[X] = \int \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x \left( \frac{d}{dx}p(x) dx\right) dy\] Notice that we can interchange \(x\) and \(y\) in the argument of \(p\) since they are dummy variables: \[E[X] = \int \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x \left( \frac{d}{dy}p(y) dy\right) dx\] Now, integrate with respect to \(y\): \[E[X] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x \left[ p(y)\right]_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx\] Then, evaluate the expression inside the square brackets: \[E[X] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x p(x) dx\] Finally, we compare this result to the given integral: \[E[X]=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} p(x) d x\] We observe that they are indeed equal, therefore we have established the desired formula.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Consider an infinite number of urns into which we toss balls independently, in such a way that a ball falls into the \(k\) th urn with probability \(1 / 2^{k}, k=1,2,3\). \(\ldots .\) For each positive integer \(N\), let \(Z_{N}\) be the number of urns which contain at least one ball after a total of \(N\) balls have been tossed. Show that $$ E\left(Z_{N}\right)=\sum_{\lambda=1}^{\infty}\left[1-\left(1-1 / 2^{k}\right)^{N}\right] $$ and that there exist constants \(C_{1}>0\) and \(C_{2}>0\) such that $$ C_{1} \log N \leq E\left(Z_{N}\right) \leq C_{2} \log N \quad \text { for all } N $$ Hint: Verify and use the facts: $$ E\left(Z_{N}\right) \geq \sum_{k=1}^{\log _{2}-N}\left[1-\left(1-\frac{1}{2^{k}}\right)^{N}\right] \geq C \log _{2} N $$ and $$ 1-\left(1-\frac{1}{2^{k}}\right)^{N} \leq N \frac{1}{2^{k}} \text { and } N \sum_{\log _{2}}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2^{k}} \leq C_{2} $$

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