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Let \(X\) and \(Y\) be two independent, nonnegative integer-valued, random variables whose distribution has the property $$ \operatorname{Pr}\\{X=x \mid X+Y=x+y\\}=\frac{\left(\begin{array}{l} m \\ x \end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{l} n \\ y \end{array}\right)}{\left(\begin{array}{l} m+n \\ x+y \end{array}\right)} $$ for all nonnegative integers \(x\) and \(y\) where \(m\) and \(n\) are given positive integers. Assume that \(\operatorname{Pr}\\{X=0\\}\) and \(\operatorname{Pr}\\{Y=0\\}\) are strictly positive. Show that both \(X\) and \(Y\) have binomial distributions with the same parameter \(p\), the other parameters being \(m\) and \(n\), respectively.

Short Answer

Expert verified
Given the conditional probability property for random variables $X$ and $Y$, we can rewrite it using binomial coefficients and simplify the expression. Using the properties of conditional probabilities and the independence of $X$ and $Y$, we can find the probability mass functions of $X$ and $Y$. These expressions resemble binomial distributions. Considering the given strictly positive probabilities, we can conclude that both $X$ and $Y$ have binomial distributions with the same parameter $p$.

Step by step solution

01

Rewrite the given property using binomial coefficients

Rewrite the property using binomial coefficient notation: $$ \operatorname{Pr}\\{X=x \mid X+Y=x+y\\} = \frac{\binom{m}{x}\binom{n}{y}}{\binom{m+n}{x+y}} $$
02

Apply the binomial coefficient identity

Apply the identity \(\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}\): $$ \operatorname{Pr}\\{X=x \mid X+Y=x+y\\} = \frac{\frac{m!}{x!(m-x)!}\frac{n!}{y!(n-y)!}}{\frac{(m+n)!}{(x+y)!(m+n-(x+y))!}} $$ Simplify the expression: $$ \operatorname{Pr}\\{X=x \mid X+Y=x+y\\} = \frac{m!n!(x+y)!}{x!y!(m-x)!(n-y)!(m+n)!} $$
03

Find the probability mass functions

First, use the fact that X and Y are independent, so \(\operatorname{Pr}\\{X=x, Y=y\\} = \operatorname{Pr}\\{X=x\\} \cdot \operatorname{Pr}\\{Y=y\\}\). Next, use the property of conditional probabilities: \(\operatorname{Pr}\\{X=x \mid X+Y=x+y\\} = \frac{\operatorname{Pr}\\{X=x, Y=y\\}}{\operatorname{Pr}\\{X+Y=x+y\\}}\). Plug in the expression of independence and the given property: $$ \frac{\operatorname{Pr}\\{X=x\\} \cdot \operatorname{Pr}\\{Y=y\\}}{\operatorname{Pr}\\{X+Y=x+y\\}} = \frac{m!n!(x+y)!}{x!y!(m-x)!(n-y)!(m+n)!} $$ Now, we can solve this equation for the probability mass functions of X and Y: $$ \operatorname{Pr}\\{X=x\\} = \frac{m!(x+y)!}{x!(m-x)!(m+n)!} \cdot \operatorname{Pr}\\{X+Y=x+y\\} $$ $$ \operatorname{Pr}\\{Y=y\\} = \frac{n!(x+y)!}{y!(n-y)!(m+n)!} \cdot \operatorname{Pr}\\{X+Y=x+y\\} $$
04

Show that X and Y have binomial distributions with parameter p

Observe that the expressions for \(\operatorname{Pr}\\{X=x\\}\) and \(\operatorname{Pr}\\{Y=y\\}\) have the same form as binomial distributions: $$ \operatorname{Pr}\\{X=x\\} = \binom{m}{x} p^x (1-p)^{m-x} $$ $$ \operatorname{Pr}\\{Y=y\\} = \binom{n}{y} p^y (1-p)^{n-y} $$ It's clear that both X and Y have binomial distributions, but we need to show that they have the same parameter p. From the expressions for \(\operatorname{Pr}\\{X=x\\}\) and \(\operatorname{Pr}\\{Y=y\\}\), we can observe that the terms \(\frac{(x+y)!}{(m+n)!}\) are both common. Moreover, we are given that the probabilities \(\operatorname{Pr}\\{X=0\\}\) and \(\operatorname{Pr}\\{Y=0\\}\) are strictly positive, which means that \(p \neq 0\) and \(1-p \neq 0\). Hence, we can conclude that X and Y have binomial distributions with the same parameter p.

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Key Concepts

These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.

Probability Mass Function
A probability mass function (PMF) characterizes the distribution of a discrete random variable and gives the probability that a random variable is exactly equal to some value. For a binomial distribution, the PMF is defined for a specific number of successes out of a fixed number of independent trials, each with the same probability of success.

For example, if you have a fair coin (with a 50% chance of landing on heads) and you flip it three times, the PMF would give you the probability of getting exactly 2 heads. In mathematical terms, if the random variable \(X\) represents the number of heads, its PMF is given by:
\[\operatorname{Pr}\{X = x\} = \binom{n}{x} p^x (1-p)^{n-x}\]
where \(\binom{n}{x}\) is the binomial coefficient representing the number of ways to choose \(x\) successes out of \(n\) trials, \(p\) is the probability of success on a single trial, and \((1-p)\) is the probability of failure.
Conditional Probability
Conditional probability is the probability of an event occurring, given that another event has already occurred. This concept is fundamental when dealing with dependent events in probability. The notation \(\operatorname{Pr}\{A \mid B\}\) signifies the probability of event \(A\) given event \(B\).

Continuing with the coin example, if you know that at least one flip resulted in heads, the conditional probability might be used to determine the likelihood that exactly two flips were heads out of three, assuming you know at least one was heads. If \(B\) is the event of getting at least one head and \(A\) is the event of getting exactly two heads, then:\[\operatorname{Pr}\{A \mid B\} = \frac{\operatorname{Pr}\{A \cap B\}}{\operatorname{Pr}\{B\}}\]
In problems involving independence, such as the example with independent random variables \(X\) and \(Y\), conditional probabilities can often simplify calculations and reasoning.
Independent Random Variables
Independent random variables are pivotal in probability theory because the outcome of one does not affect the outcome of the other. This means that knowing the value of one variable gives no information about the other. As a result, the probability of their joint occurrence is the product of their individual probabilities.

For two independent random variables \(X\) and \(Y\), the probability that \(X\) equals \(x\) and \(Y\) equals \(y\) can be expressed as:\[\operatorname{Pr}\{X=x, Y=y\} = \operatorname{Pr}\{X=x\} \cdot \operatorname{Pr}\{Y=y\}\]
This property is crucial when dealing with the distribution of sums of independent variables, like in the given problem where \(X+Y=x+y\). Independence simplifies the calculation of the PMF of the sum of the two variables.
Binomial Coefficient
The binomial coefficient is a term used in combinatorics to indicate the number of ways to choose a subset of items from a larger set, regardless of order. It's often denoted as \(\binom{n}{k}\), read as 'n choose k'. This concept features prominently in binomial distributions, where it represents the number of possible outcomes with a specific number of successes.

The binomial coefficient is calculated as:\[\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}\]
where \(n!\) is the factorial of \(n\) and represents the product of all positive integers up to \(n\), '!' denotes factorial, and \(0! = 1\) by definition. The binomial coefficient has symmetry properties such as \(\binom{n}{k} = \binom{n}{n-k}\), and it is essential for understanding binomial probabilities and distributions.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

For each given \(p\) let \(X\) have a binomial distribution with parameters \(p\) and N. Suppose \(N\) is itself binomially distributed with parameters \(q\) and \(M, M \geq N\). (a) Show analytieally that \(X\) has a binomial distribution with parameters \(p q\) and \(M_{0}\) (b) Give a probabilistie argument for this result.

There are at least four schools of thought on the statistical distribution of stock price differences, or more generally, stochastie models for sequences of stock prices. In terms of number of followers, by far the most popular approach is that of the so-called "technical analysist", phrased in terms of short term. trends, support and resistance levels, technical rebounds, and so on. Rejecting this technical viewpoint, two other sehools agree that sequences of prices describe a random walk, when price changes are statistically independent of previous price history, but these schools disagree in their choice of the appropriate probability distributions. Some authors find price changes to have a normal distribution while the other group finds a distribution with "fatter tail probabilities", and perhaps even an infinite variance. Finally, a fourth group (overlapping with the preceding two) admits the random walk as a first-order approximation but notes recognizable second- order effects. This exercise is to show a compatibility between the middle two groups. It has been noted that those that find price changes to be normal typieally measure the changes over a fixed number of transactions, while those that find the larger tail probabilities typically measure price changes over a fixed time period that may contain a random number of transactions. Let \(Z\) be a price change. Use as the measure of " fatness " (and there could be dispute about this) the coefficient of excess. $$ \gamma_{2}=\left[m_{4} /\left(m_{2}\right)^{2}\right]-3 $$ where \(m_{k}\) is the kth moment of \(Z\) about its mean. Suppose on each transaction that the price advances by one unit, or lowers by one unit, each with equal probability. Let \(N\) be the number of transactions and write \(Z=X_{1}+\cdots+X_{N}\) where the \(X_{n}^{\prime} s\) are independent and identically distributed random variables, each equally likely to be \(+1\) or \(-1 .\) Compute \(\gamma_{2}\) for \(Z:(a)\) When \(N\) is a fixed number \(a\), and (b). When \(N\) has a Poisson distribution. with mean \(a\).

(a) Suppose \(X\) is distributed according to a Poisson distribution with parameter \(\hat{2} .\) The parameter \(\lambda\) is itself a random variable whose distribution law is exponential with mean \(=1 / c .\) Find the distribution of \(X\). (b) What if \(\lambda\) follows a gamma distribution of order \(\alpha\) with scale parameter \(c\), i.e., the density of \(\lambda\) is \(e^{\alpha+1} \frac{\lambda^{a}}{\Gamma(\alpha+1)} e^{-\lambda c}\) for \(\lambda>0 ; 0\) for \(\lambda \leq 0\)

Let \(X\) and \(Y\) be jointly distributed discrete random variables having possible values \(0,1,2, \ldots\) For \(|s|<1,|t|<1\) define the joint generating function $$ \phi_{X, y}(s, t)=\sum_{i, j=0}^{\infty} s^{i} t^{j} \operatorname{Pr}\\{X=i, Y=j\\} $$ and the marginal generating functions $$ \begin{aligned} &\phi_{X}(s)=\sum_{i=0}^{\infty} s^{i} \operatorname{Pr}\\{X=i\\} \\ &\phi_{Y}(t)=\sum_{j=0}^{\infty} t^{j} \operatorname{Pr}\\{Y=j\\} \end{aligned} $$ (a) Prove that \(X\) and \(Y\) are independent if and only if $$ \phi_{X, y}(s, t)=\phi_{X}(s) \phi_{Y}(t) \quad \text { for all } s, t $$ (b) Give an example of jointly distributed random variables \(X, Y\) which. are not independent, but for which. $$ \phi_{X, Y}(t, t)=\phi_{X}(t) \phi_{Y}(t) \text { for all } t $$ (This example is pertinent because \(\phi_{X, Y}(t, t)\) is the generating function of the sum \(X+Y\). Thus independence is sufficient but not necessary for the generating function of a sum of random variables to be the product of the marginal generating functions.)

For each given \(p\), let \(X\) have a binomial distribution with parameters \(p\) and N. Suppose \(P\) is distributed according to a beta distribution with parameters \(r\) and \(s\). Find the resulting distribution of \(X\). When is this distribution uniform on \(x=9,1, \ldots, N ?\)

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