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Find Var(X) ifP(X=a)=p=1P(X=b)

Short Answer

Expert verified

We have found to beVar(X)=(a-b)2(1-p)p

Step by step solution

01

Given information

Given in the question is,

P(X=a)=p=1-P(X=b)

02

Substitution

The random variable Xcan consider only two values, awith probability pand bwith the probability 1-p.

Using the meaning of the mean, we have that

E(X)=a×p+b×(1-p)=:μ

03

Calculation

Currently, operating the definition of the variance, we have that

Var(X)=E(X-μ)2=(a-μ)2·p+(b-μ)2·(1-p)

=(a-a×p-b×(1-p))2p+(b-a×p+b×(1-p))2(1-p)

Substitute the given expression,

=(a-b)2(1-p)2p+(b-a)2p2(1-p)

role="math" localid="1646669147074" =(a-b)2(1-p)p[1-p+p]

We get,

=(a-b)2(1-p)p.

04

Final answer

The solution of theVar(X)is found to be(a-b)2(1-p)p.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Let N be a nonnegative integer-valued random variable. For nonnegative values aj, j Ú 1, show that

j=1a1++ajP{N=j}=i=1aiP[Ni}

Then show that

E[N]=i=1P[Ni}

and

E[N(N+1)]=2i=1iP{Ni}

Consider n independent sequential trials, each of which is successful with probability p. If there is a total of k successes, show that each of the n!/[k!(n − k)!] possible arrangements of the k successes and n − k failures is equally likely.

A student is getting ready to take an important oral examination and is concerned about the possibility of having an “on” day or an “off” day. He figures that if he has an on the day, then each of his examiners will pass him, independently of one another, with probability8, whereas if he has an off day, this probability will be reduced to4. Suppose that the student will pass the examination if a majority of the examiners pass him. If the student believes that he is twice as likely to have an off day as he is to have an on the day, should he request an examination with3examiners or with5examiners?

The monthly worldwide average number of airplane crashes of commercial airlines is 3.5.What is the probability that there will be

(a) at least 2such accidents in the next month;

(b) at most1accidents in the next month?

Explain your reasoning!

Let Xbe a negative binomial random variable with parameters rand p, and let Ybe a binomial random variable with parameters nand p. Show that

P{X>n}=P{Y<r}

Hint: Either one could attempt an analytical proof of the preceding equation, which is equivalent to proving the identity

i=n+1i1r1pr(1p)ir=i=0r1ni×pi(1p)ni

or one could attempt a proof that uses the probabilistic interpretation of these random variables. That is, in the latter case, start by considering a sequence of independent trials having a common probability p of success. Then try to express the events to express the events {X>n}and {Y<r}in terms of the outcomes of this sequence.

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