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A jar contains nchips. Suppose that a boy successively draws a chip from the jar, each time replacing the one drawn before drawing another. The process continues until the boy draws a chip that he has previously drawn. LetX denote the number of draws, and compute its probability mass function.

Short Answer

Expert verified

knk+1·i=0k-1(n-i)

Step by step solution

01

Given information

We have that X,X2. Event X>kmeans that in first kdraws we have taken all different chips. Hence

P(X>k)=n(n-1)(n-k+1)nk

Similarly we have that

P(X>k+1)=n(n-1)(n-k)nk+1

02

Explanation

Hence. we have that

P(X=k)=P(X>k)-P(X>k+1)

=n(n-1)(n-k+1)nk-n(n-1)(n-k)nk+1

=n(n-1)(n-k+1)nk1-n-kn

=kn·n(n-1)(n-k+1)nk

03

Final answer

The probability mass function is

P(X=k)=knk+1·i=0k-1(n-i)

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