Chapter 10: Problem 7
In Example 10.4 , we wrote the model that explicitly contains the long-run propensity, \(\theta_{0}\), as $$ g f r_{t}=\alpha_{0}+\theta_{0} p e_{t}+\delta_{1}\left(p e_{t-1}-p e_{t}\right)+\delta_{2}\left(p e_{t-2}-p e_{t}\right)+u $$ where we omit the other explanatory variables for simplicity. As always with multiple regression analysis, \(\theta_{0}\) should have a ceteris paribus interpretation. Namely, if \(p e_{t}\) increases by one (dollar) holding \(\left(p e_{t-1}-p e_{t}\right)\) and \(\left(p e_{t-2}-p e_{t}\right)\) fixed, \(g f r_{t}\) should change by \(\theta_{0}\) i. If \(\left(p e_{t-1}-p e_{t}\right)\) and \(\left(p e_{t-2}-p e_{t}\right)\) are held fixed but \(p e_{t}\) is increasing, what must be true about changes in \(p e_{t-1}\) and \(p e_{t-2} ?\) ii. How does your answer in part (i) help you to interpret \(\theta_{0}\) in the above equation as the LRP?
Short Answer
Step by step solution
Key Concepts
These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.