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If higher inflation is bad, then why might it be advantageous to have a higher inflation target rather than a lower target that is closer to zero?

Short Answer

Expert verified

A higher inflation target is less binding than a target nearer to zero.

Step by step solution

01

Concept Introduction

Assuming that inflation stays advanced for a long time, it can prompt something financial analysts to call hyperinflation. This is when assumptions that costs will continue to rise fills more inflation, which diminishes the genuine worth of each dollar in your pocket.

02

Explanation

Albeit higher inflation is terrible yet at the same time numerous national banks target inflation in the scope of 2-3%with the goal that their nation will stay in stable condition. Having said that, envision assuming any national bank focus for 0%inflation however on the off chance that it turns out to be negative? Its repercussions will be terrible. Nation will dial back, joblessness will happen and so on They can't make do with such accuracy that0methods 0. The nation is certainly not something seemingly insignificant. Numerous things can happen which can have an effect and which prompt negative inflation (emptying). That is the cause they target a bit more than 0. Also, in the event that your emptying is the current issue of Japan rather than inflation.

03

Final Answer

A higher inflation target is less binding than a target nearer to zero.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

What methods have inflation-targeting central banks used to increase communication with the public and to increase the transparency of monetary policymaking?

What does the Taylor rule imply that policymakers should do to the fed funds rate under the following scenarios?

a. Unemployment rises due to a recession.

b. An oil price shock causes the inflation rate to rise by 1%and output to fall by 1%.

c. The economy experiences prolonged increases in productivity growth while actual output growth is unchanged.

d. Potential output declines while actual output remains unchanged.

e. The Fed revises its (implicit) inflation target downward.

f. The equilibrium real fed funds rate decreases

Classify each of the following as either a policy instrument or an intermediary target. Explain your answer.

a. Long-term interest rates

b. Central bank interest rates

c. M2

d. Reserve requirements

The Fedโ€™s maximum employment mandate is generally interpreted as an attempt to achieve an unemployment rate that is as close as possible to the natural rate and inflation that is close to its 2%goal for personal consumption expenditure price inflation. Go to the St. Louis Federal Reserve FRED database, and find data on the personal consumption expenditure price index (PCECTPI), the unemployment rate (UNRATE), and a measure of the natural rate of unemployment (NROU). For the price index, adjust the units setting to โ€œPercent Change From Year Agoโ€ to convert the data to the inflation rate; for the unemployment rate, change the frequency setting to โ€œQuarterly.โ€ Download the data into a spreadsheet. Calculate the unemployment gap and inflation gap for each quarter. Then, using the inflation gap, create an average inflation gap measure by taking the average of the current inflation gap and the gaps for the previous three quarters. Now apply the following (admittedly arbitrary and ad hoc) test to the data from 2000:Q1 through the most recent data available: If the unemployment gap is larger than 1.0for two or more consecutive quarters, and/ or the average inflation gap is larger in absolute value than 0.5for two or more consecutive quarters, consider the mandate โ€œviolated.โ€

a. Based on this ad hoc test, in which quarters has the Fed โ€œviolatedโ€ the price stability portion of its mandate? In which quarters has the Fed โ€œviolatedโ€ the maximum employment mandate?

b. Is the Fed currently โ€œin violationโ€ of its mandate?

c. Interpret your results. What does your response to part (a) and the data imply about the challenge that monetary policymakers face in achieving the Fedโ€™s mandate perfectly at all times?

โ€œInterest rates can be measured more accurately and quickly than reserve aggregates; hence an interest rate is preferred to the reserve aggregates as a policy instrument.โ€ Do you agree or disagree? Explain your answer

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