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“The zero lower bound on short-term interest rates is not a problem, since the central bank can just use quantitative easing to lower intermediate and longer-term interest rates instead.” Is this statement true, false, or uncertain? Explain.

Short Answer

Expert verified

This statement is false.

Step by step solution

01

Concept Introduction

Zero-bound is an expansionary economic policy tool where a central bank decreases short-term interest rates to zero, if required, to boost the economy. A central bank that is forced to legislate this policy must also follow other, often unconventional, techniques of stimulus to resuscitate the economy.

02

Explanation

Quantitative easing is a policy operated by the central government to a regular local economy. It is one of the strategies operated once the zero lower bound is achieved on short-term interest rates. The central bank cannot reduce the interests rates to stabilize the economy as the interest rate cannot go descending than zero. This might conduct to the withdrawal of money from the centralized bank by account holders. Lending money from Government financial institutions at lower rates will enable the centralised bank to sustain and achieve lower interest rates.

03

Final Answer

This statement is false.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

If the Fed has an interest-rate target, why will an increase in the demand for reserves lead to a rise in the money supply? Use a graph of the market for reserves to explain.

. Since monetary policy changes made through the fed funds rate occur with a lag, policymakers are usually more concerned with adjusting policy according to changes in the forecasted or expected inflation rate, rather than the current inflation rate. In light of this, suppose that monetary policymakers employ the Taylor rule to set the fed funds rate, where the inflation gap is defined as the difference between expected inflation and the target inflation rate. Assume that the weights on both the inflation and output gaps are ½, the equilibrium real fed funds rate is 4%, the inflation rate target is 3%, and the output gap is 2%. a. If the expected inflation rate is 7%, then at what target should the fed funds rate be set according to the Taylor rule?

b. Suppose half of Fed economists forecast inflation to be 6%, and half of Fed economists forecast inflation to be 8%. If the Fed uses the average of these two forecasts as its measure of expected inflation, then at what target should the fed funds rate be set according to the Taylor rule?

c. Now suppose half of Fed economists forecast inflation to be 0%, and half forecast inflation to be 14%. If the Fed uses the average of these two forecasts as its measure of expected inflation, then at what target should the fed funds rate be set according to the Taylor rule?

d. Given your answers to parts (a)–(c) above, do you think it is a good idea for monetary policymakers to use a strict interpretation of the Taylor rule as a basis for setting policy? Why or why not?

Why might inflation targeting increase support for the independence of the central bank in conducting monetary policy?

“Since financial crises can impart severe damage to the economy, a central bank’s primary goal should be to ensure stability in financial markets.” Is this statement true, false, or uncertain? Explain.

Many countries have central banks that are responsible for their nation’s monetary policy. Go to http:// www.bis.org/cbanks.htm, and select one of the central banks (for example, the central bank of Norway). Review that bank’s website to determine its policies regarding the application of monetary policy. How does this bank’s policies compare to those of the U.S. central bank?

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