Chapter 25: Problem 2
In the 1930 s several authors suggested a "bribe criterion" for judging the desirability of social situations. This welfare criterion states that a movement from social state \(A\) to state \(B\) is an improvement in social welfare if those who gain by this move are able to compensate those who lose sufficiently so that they will accept the change. Compensation does not actually have to be made; it is only necessary that it could be paid. If the compensation is actually made, this criterion reduces to the Pareto definition (some individuals are made better off without making anyone worse off). Hence, the criterion is novel only in that compensation is not paid by the gainers to the losers. In such a situation, does the bribe criterion seem to be "value- free," or does the criterion seem somehow to favor those who are initially rich? Can you give some simple examples?
Short Answer
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Key Concepts
These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.