Chapter 17: Problem 12
Many results from the theory of finance are framed in terms of the expected gross rate of return \(E\left(R_{i}\right)=E\left(x_{i}\right) / p_{i}\) on a risky asset. In this problem you are asked to derive a few of these results. a. Use Equation 17.37 to show that \(E\left(R_{i}\right)-R_{f}=\) \\[ -R_{f} \operatorname{Cov}\left(m, R_{i}\right) \\] b. In mathematical statistics the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality states that for any two random variables \(x\) and \(y,|\operatorname{Cov}(x, y)| \leq \sigma_{x} \sigma_{y}\) Use this result to show that \\[ \left|E\left(R_{i}\right)-R_{j}\right| \leq R_{j} \sigma_{m} \sigma_{k} \\] c. Sharpe ratio bound. In finance, the "Sharpe ratio" is defined as the excess expected return of a risky asset over the risk-free rate divided by the standard deviation of the return on that risky asset. That is, Sharpe ratio \(=\left[E\left(R_{4}\right)-R_{f}\right] / \sigma_{R_{i}} .\) Use the results of part (b) to show that the upper bound for the Sharpe ratio is \(\sigma_{m} / E(m) .\) (Note: The ratio of the standard deviation of a random variable to its mean is termed the "coefficient of variation," or \(C V\). This part shows that the upper bound of the Sharpe ratio is given by the \(C V\) of the stochastic discount rate. d. Approximating the \(C V\) of \(m\). The stochastic discount factor, \(m,\) is random because consumption growth is random. Sometimes it is convenient to assume that consumption growth follows a "lognormal" distribution-that is, the logarithm of consumption growth follows a Normal distribution. Let the standard deviation of the logarithm consumption growth be given by \(\sigma_{\ln \Delta c}\) Given these assumptions, it can be shown that \(C V(m)=\sqrt{e^{r^{2}} \tan \alpha}-1 .\) Use this result to show that an approximation to the value of this radical can be expressed as \(C V(m) \cong \gamma \sigma_{\ln \Delta c}\) e. Equity premium paradox. Search the Internet for historical data on the average Sharpe ratio for a broad stock market index over the past 50 years. Use this result together with the rough estimate that \(\sigma_{\ln 3 e} \approx .01\) to show that parts (c) and (d) of this problem imply a very high value for individual's relative risk aversion parameter \(\gamma\). That is, the relatively high historical Sharpe ratio for stocks can only be justified by our theory if people are much more risk averse than is usually assumed. This is termed the "equity premium paradox." What do you make of it?