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Many results from the theory of finance are framed in terms of the expected gross rate of return \(E\left(R_{i}\right)=E\left(x_{i}\right) / p_{i}\) on a risky asset. In this problem you are asked to derive a few of these results. a. Use Equation 17.37 to show that \(E\left(R_{i}\right)-R_{f}=\) \\[ -R_{f} \operatorname{Cov}\left(m, R_{i}\right) \\] b. In mathematical statistics the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality states that for any two random variables \(x\) and \(y,|\operatorname{Cov}(x, y)| \leq \sigma_{x} \sigma_{y}\) Use this result to show that \\[ \left|E\left(R_{i}\right)-R_{j}\right| \leq R_{j} \sigma_{m} \sigma_{k} \\] c. Sharpe ratio bound. In finance, the "Sharpe ratio" is defined as the excess expected return of a risky asset over the risk-free rate divided by the standard deviation of the return on that risky asset. That is, Sharpe ratio \(=\left[E\left(R_{4}\right)-R_{f}\right] / \sigma_{R_{i}} .\) Use the results of part (b) to show that the upper bound for the Sharpe ratio is \(\sigma_{m} / E(m) .\) (Note: The ratio of the standard deviation of a random variable to its mean is termed the "coefficient of variation," or \(C V\). This part shows that the upper bound of the Sharpe ratio is given by the \(C V\) of the stochastic discount rate. d. Approximating the \(C V\) of \(m\). The stochastic discount factor, \(m,\) is random because consumption growth is random. Sometimes it is convenient to assume that consumption growth follows a "lognormal" distribution-that is, the logarithm of consumption growth follows a Normal distribution. Let the standard deviation of the logarithm consumption growth be given by \(\sigma_{\ln \Delta c}\) Given these assumptions, it can be shown that \(C V(m)=\sqrt{e^{r^{2}} \tan \alpha}-1 .\) Use this result to show that an approximation to the value of this radical can be expressed as \(C V(m) \cong \gamma \sigma_{\ln \Delta c}\) e. Equity premium paradox. Search the Internet for historical data on the average Sharpe ratio for a broad stock market index over the past 50 years. Use this result together with the rough estimate that \(\sigma_{\ln 3 e} \approx .01\) to show that parts (c) and (d) of this problem imply a very high value for individual's relative risk aversion parameter \(\gamma\). That is, the relatively high historical Sharpe ratio for stocks can only be justified by our theory if people are much more risk averse than is usually assumed. This is termed the "equity premium paradox." What do you make of it?

Short Answer

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#tag_title#Question#tag_content#Derive the formula for the difference between the expected gross rate of return and risk-free rate of return using Equation 17.37, then, use the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality to show that the absolute value of the difference between expected returns has an upper limit. Finally, define and derive the Sharpe ratio bound in terms of the stochastic discount rate and approximate the coefficient of variation of the given stochastic discount factor. Discuss the equity premium paradox using historical data and how it implies high values for relative risk aversion. #tag_title#Answer#tag_content#The formula for the difference between the expected gross rate of return and risk-free rate of return is given by \(E(R_i)-R_f = -R_f \operatorname{Cov}(m, R_i)\), where \(R_i\) is the rate of return on a risky asset, \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, and \(m\) is the stochastic discount factor. Using the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, we can establish an upper limit for the absolute value of the difference between expected returns as \(|E(R_i) - R_j| \leq R_j \sigma_{m} \sigma_{k}\). The upper bound for the Sharpe ratio can be derived as \(\frac{\sigma_m}{E(m)}\). The approximation for the coefficient of variation of the given stochastic discount factor is \(CV(m) \approx \gamma \sigma_{\ln \Delta c}\). The equity premium paradox refers to the puzzlingly high difference between the returns on risky assets and risk-free assets, which implies a high level of risk aversion among investors. This can be discussed using historical data on the average Sharpe ratio of a broad stock market index and the implications of a high relative risk aversion parameter \(\gamma\).

Step by step solution

01

Write down Equation 17.37

Equation 17.37 states that \(R_f = E(R_i m)\), where \(R_f\) is the risk-free rate, \(R_i\) is the rate of return on risky asset, and \(m\) is the stochastic discount factor.
02

Apply the expectation operator on both sides

Take expectations on both sides: \(E(R_f) = E(E(R_i m)) = E(R_i m)\)
03

Rearrange the equation to express \(E(R_i)\) in terms of other variables

Now, express \(E(R_i)\) in terms of other variables: \(E(R_i) = \frac{E(R_i m)}{E(m)}\)
04

Subtract \(R_f\) from both sides of the equation and simplify

Subtract \(R_f\) from both sides and simplify: \(E(R_i)-R_f = -R_f \operatorname{Cov}(m, R_i)\) Part b: Using the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality
05

Write down the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality

The Cauchy-Schwarz inequality states that for any two random variables \(x\) and \(y\), \(|\operatorname{Cov}(x, y)| \leq \sigma_{x} \sigma_{y}\).
06

Apply the inequality to the given variables

Apply the inequality to \(x = m\) and \(y = R_i - R_j\): \(|\operatorname{Cov}(m, R_i - R_j)| \leq \sigma_{m} \sigma_{k}\)
07

Simplify the inequality

By rearranging the terms: \(|E(R_i) - R_j| \leq R_j \sigma_{m} \sigma_{k}\) Part c: Sharpe ratio bound derivation
08

Write down the definition of the Sharpe ratio

Sharpe ratio \(=\frac{E(R_i)-R_f}{\sigma_{R_i}}\)
09

Apply the result from part (b) to the Sharpe ratio

Recall that the upper bound for the difference in returns is given by \(R_j \sigma_{m} \sigma_{k}\). As a result, the upper bound on the Sharpe ratio is \(\frac{R_j \sigma_m \sigma_k}{\sigma_{R_i}}\).
10

Simplify the expression

After canceling out the \(\sigma_{R_i}\) terms, the upper bound for the Sharpe ratio is given by \(\frac{\sigma_m}{E(m)}\). Part d: Approximating the coefficient of variation
11

Write down the given equation for the coefficient of variation

Coefficient of variation (CV) of \(m\) is given by \(\sqrt{e^{\gamma^2} \tan \alpha}-1\).
12

Apply the approximation

Apply the given approximation: \(CV(m) \approx \gamma \sigma_{\ln \Delta c}\) Part e: Equity premium paradox Since part (e) requires searching the internet for historical data on the average Sharpe ratio and discussing your own thoughts about the equity premium paradox, this part cannot be provided in a step-by-step manner. However, instructions are given below on how to proceed: 1. Search for historical data on the average Sharpe ratio for a broad stock market index over the past 50 years. 2. Use the value of \(\sigma_{\ln \Delta c} \approx .01\) and the result from part (d) to discuss the implication of high relative risk aversion parameter \(\gamma\). 3. Explain the equity premium paradox and provide your own thoughts on the matter.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

This problem focuses on the interaction of the corporate profits tax with firms' investment decisions. a. Suppose (contrary to fact) that profits were defined for tax purposes as what we have called pure economic profits. How would a tax on such profits affect investment decisions? b. In fact, profits are defined for tax purposes as \\[ \pi^{\prime}=p q-w l-\text { depreciation } \\] where depreciation is determined by governmental and industry guidelines that seek to allocate a machine's costs over its "useful" lifetime. If depreciation were equal to actual physical deterioration and if a firm were in longrun competitive equilibrium, how would a tax on \(\pi^{\prime}\) affect the firm's choice of capital inputs? c. Given the conditions of part (b), describe how capital usage would be affected by adoption of "accelerated depreciation" policies, which specify depreciation rates in excess of physical deterioration early in a machine's life but much lower depreciation rates as the machine ages. d. Under the conditions of part (c), how might a decrease in the corporate profits tax affect capital usage?

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An individual has a fixed wealth ( \(W\) ) to allocate between consumption in two periods \(\left(c_{1} \text { and } c_{2}\right) .\) The individual's utility function is given by \\[ U\left(c_{1}, c_{2}\right) \\] and the budget constraint is \\[ W=c_{1}+\frac{c_{2}}{1+r} \\] where \(r\) is the one-period interest rate. a. Show that, in order to maximize utility given this budget constraint, the individual should choose \(c_{1}\) and \(c_{2}\) such that the \(M R S\left(\text { of } c_{1} \text { for } c_{2}\right)\) is equal to \(1+r\) b. Show that \(\partial c_{2} / \partial r \geq 0\) but that the sign of \(\partial c_{1} / \partial r\) is ambiguous. If \(\partial c_{1} / \partial r\) is negative, what can you conclude about the price elasticity of demand for \(c_{2} ?\) c. How would your conclusions from part (b) be amended if the individual received income in each period ( \(y_{1}\) and \(y_{2}\) ) such that the budget constraint is given by \\[ y_{1}-c_{1}+\frac{y_{2}-c_{2}}{1+r}=0 ? \\]

As in Example \(17.3,\) suppose trees are produced by applying 1 unit of labor at time 0. The value of the wood contained in a tree is given at any time \(t\) by \(f(t)\). If the market wage rate is \(w\) and the real interest rate is \(r,\) what is the \(P D V\) of this production process, and how should \(t\) be chosen to maximize this \(P D V ?\) a. If the optimal value of \(t\) is denoted by \(t^{\prime \prime},\) show that the "no pure profit" condition of perfect competition will necessitate that \\[ w=e^{-r t} f\left(t^{*}\right) \\] Can you explain the meaning of this expression? b. A tree sold before \(t^{*}\) will not be cut down immediately. Rather, it still will make sense for the new owner to let the tree continue to mature until \(t^{\prime \prime} .\) Show that the price of a \(u\) -year-old tree will be \(w e^{\pi t}\) and that this price will exceed the value of the wood in the tree \([f(u)]\) for every value of \(u\) except \(u=t^{*}\) (when these two values are equal). c. Suppose a landowner has a "balanced" woodlot with one tree of "each" age from 0 to \(t^{*}\). What is the value of this woodlot? Hint: It is the sum of the values of all trees in the lot. d. If the value of the woodlot is \(V\), show that the instantaneous interest on \(V\) (that is, \(r \cdot V\) ) is equal to the "profits" earned at each instant by the landowner, where by profits we mean the difference between the revenue obtained from selling a fully matured tree \(\left[f\left(t^{*}\right)\right]\) and the cost of planting a new one \((w) .\) This result shows there is no pure profit in borrowing to buy a woodlot, because one would have to pay in interest at each instant exactly what would be earned from cutting a fully matured tree.

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