Question

Even after adjusting for price-level differences, because state income tax rates vary considerably across U.S. states, why might an income-threshold definition of who is "rich" yield very different results across states if it were to be based on after-tax incomes instead of before-tax incomes?

Short answer

An income-threshold definition of who is "rich" yields very different results across states if it were to be based on after-tax incomes instead of before-tax incomes as policymakers frequently classify individuals as rich or poor assuming their yearly pay surpasses the limit pay.

Step-by-step solution

introduction 

This limit pay doesn't consider the provincial cost level contrasts that exist across U.S states. For instance, the typical cost level in Illinois is firmly adjusted to the U.S purchaser cost record.

explanation

While the typical cost level in states like California is higher than the U.S CPI. This implies that it costs more to occupants of California to purchase similar bins of products as in Illinois. In this way, pay edge to order a singular rich in view of the typical pay of U.S occupants won't yield fitting outcomes. Hence, pay limits to order a singular rich are probably going to yield various outcomes whenever in view of after charge pay than before charge pay.