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Some economists have argued that if the government wishes to subsidize health care, it should instead provide predetermined amounts of payments (based on the type of health care problems experienced) directly to patients, who then would be free to choose their health care providers. Whether or not you agree, can you give an economic rationale for this approach to governmental health care funding?

Short Answer

Expert verified

governmental health care funding is important for the economy's development and growth

Step by step solution

01

Given Information

The government needs to take a dynamic job in the general medical services framework to increment public government assistance.

02

Explanation 

The needy individuals of the nation can't benefit from the medical care administration. Assuming that administration meddles and gives them general medical services, their efficiency will increment and therefore can lessen the destitution somewhat. Social government assistance will improve generally by government intercession in the medical care market. Hence governmental health care funding is important for the economy's development and growth.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Distinguish among alternative approaches to measuring and addressing poverty.

Estimates indicate that in recent years, the poorest 40 percent of the population earned about 15 percent of total income in Argentina. In Brazil, the poorest 40 percent earned about 10 percent of total income. The next-highest 30 percent of income earners in Argentina received roughly 25 percent of total income. In Brazil, the next-highest 30 percent of income earners received approximately 20 percent of total income. Can you determine, without drawing a diagram (though you can if you wish), which country's Lorenz curve was bowed out farther to the right?

Consider the graph nearby, which depicts Lorenz curves for countries X, Y, and Z.

a. Which country has the least income inequality?

b. Which country has the most income inequality?

c. Countries Y and Z are identical in all but one respect: population distribution. The share of the population made up of children below working age is much higher in country Z. Recently, however, birthrates have declined in country Z and risen in country Y. Assuming that the countries remain identical in all other respects, would you expect that in 20 years the Lorenz curves for the two countries will be closer together or farther apart? (Hint: According to the age-earnings cycle, what typically happens to income as an individual begins working and ages?)

Suppose that a group of physicians establishes a joint practice in a remote area. This group provides the only health care available to people in the local community, and its objective is to maximize total economic profits for the group's members. Explain how the price and quantity of health care will be determined in this community. (Hint: How does a single producer of any service determine its output and price?)

During the past decade, many members of the baby boom generation have passed through ages ranging from the middle 40s to the late 50s. Do you suppose that the fact that there have been more members of this generation than other generations in the population during this past decade tends to imply that there was higher or lower measured inequality over the period? Why?

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