Chapter 23: Problem 12
An \(M P C\) equal to 0 implies a multiplier of 1 , meaning that \(\$ 1\) increase in autonomous expenditures would increase real GDP by only \(\$ 1 .\) Why does an \(M P C\) equal to 0 result in no multiplier effect? Conversely, an MPC equal to 1 implies an infinite multiplier, meaning that a \(\$ 1\) increase in autonomous expenditures would increase real GDP by an infinite amount. Why does an \(\mathrm{MPC}\) of 1 result in an infinite multiplier? Explain your answers using the logic of the multiplier process.
Short Answer
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Key Concepts
These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.