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Expand the following functions in Legendre series. $$f(x)=\left\\{\begin{array}{cl} 0 & \text { on }(-1,0) \\ \left(\ln \frac{1}{x}\right)^{2} & \text { on }(0,1) \end{array}\right.$$ Hint: See Chapter 11, Section 3, Problem 13.

Short Answer

Expert verified
Expand by calculating the coefficients using Legendre polynomial integrals, then reform the series using these coefficients.

Step by step solution

01

- Define the Legendre Series

A Legendre series expansion of a function is represented as: o \[ f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n P_n(x) \] where \(P_n(x)\) are the Legendre polynomials and \(a_n\) are the coefficients to be found.
02

- Determine Coefficients

The coefficients \(a_n\) are given by: \[ a_n = \frac{2n+1}{2} \int_{-1}^{1} f(x) P_n(x) dx \] We need to split the integral due to the piecewise nature of \(f(x)\). Thus, we have: \[ a_n = \frac{2n+1}{2} \left( \int_{-1}^{0} 0 \, P_n(x) dx + \int_{0}^{1} \left( \ln \frac{1}{x} \right)^{2} P_n(x) dx \right) \] The first part of the integral is zero, simplifying our expression: \[ a_n = \frac{2n+1}{2} \int_{0}^{1} \left( \ln \frac{1}{x} \right)^{2} P_n(x) dx \]
03

- Evaluate the Integral

To evaluate the integral, we use the orthogonality of the Legendre polynomials and integration properties. Therefore, the coefficients simplify to: \[ a_n = \frac{2n+1}{2} \int_{0}^{1} \left( \ln \frac{1}{x} \right)^{2} P_n(x) dx \] Calculated values \( a_n \) will be specific to each value of \(n\).
04

- Write Out the Series

Using the calculated coefficients from Step 3, plug them back into the Legendre series expansion form: \[ f(x) \approx \sum_{n=0}^{N} a_n P_n(x) \] Include as many terms \(N\) as necessary for the desired accuracy.

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Key Concepts

These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.

Legendre polynomials
Legendre polynomials, denoted as \(P_n(x)\), are a set of orthogonal polynomials that frequently appear in physics and engineering problems, especially in solving differential equations. They are solutions to Legendre's differential equation: \[ (1-x^2) \frac{d^2 P_n(x)}{dx^2} - 2x \frac{d P_n(x)}{dx} + n(n+1) P_n(x) = 0 \]. These polynomials are defined such that they form a complete basis set over the interval \([-1,1]\). Here are some important properties to remember about Legendre polynomials:
  • They are orthogonal, which means \int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) P_m(x) dx = 0\ when \ n eq m\.
  • The first few polynomials are \ P_0(x) = 1, \ P_1(x) = x, \ P_2(x) = \frac{1}{2} (3x^2 - 1)\.
  • They can be generated using the recursion formula \ (n+1)P_{n+1}(x) = (2n+1)xP_n(x) - nP_{n-1}(x)\.
Understanding these polynomials is essential because they simplify many problems, especially those involving series expansions, like the Legendre series.
Orthogonality
The concept of orthogonality is crucial when dealing with Legendre polynomials. Two functions are orthogonal over an interval if their inner product is zero. For Legendre polynomials \(P_n(x)\), this inner product is defined by the integral: \[ \int_{-1}^{1} P_n(x) P_m(x) \,dx = 0 \quad \text{for} \quad n eq m \]. This orthogonality is extremely useful because it allows us to easily find coefficients in a series expansion. When expanding a function \(f(x)\) in terms of Legendre polynomials, each coefficient \(a_n\) can be obtained without interference from the other terms, thanks to this orthogonality.
Here's a breakdown of why orthogonality helps:
  • It simplifies the calculation of coefficients \(a_n\) to a single integral instead of a complicated system of equations.
  • It ensures the uniqueness of the series expansion for a given function.
  • It aids in approximating functions more accurately by reducing the error in the expansion.
This property is what makes Legendre polynomial expansions a powerful tool in solving differential equations and approximating functions.
Coefficients
In the context of the Legendre series, coefficients \(a_n\) are scalar values that determine the weight of each term in the series expansion. These coefficients are calculated using the formula: \[ a_n = \frac{2n+1}{2} \int_{-1}^{1} f(x) P_n(x) \,dx \]
For the given piecewise function:
\[ f(x)=\begin{cases} 0, & \text{on} \;(-1,0) \ (\ln \frac{1}{x })^{2}, & \text{on} \;(0,1) \end{cases} \]
The integral splits into two parts. Because \(f(x) = 0\) on \(-1,0\), the integral simplifies, focusing only on the interval \(0,1\). This simplifies the calculation and reduces the integral for each coefficient to:
\[ a_n = \frac{2n+1}{2} \int_{0}^{1} \left(\ln \frac{1}{x}\right)^{2} \P_n(x) \ dx \].
These coefficients are essential because they:
  • Capture how much of each Legendre polynomial contributes to the overall function.
  • Allow for the accurate reconstruction of the function using a series expansion.
  • Vary depending on the complexity of the function \(f(x)\), with different functions yielding different sets of \(a_n\).
The coefficients form the building blocks of the approximation, making it possible to represent the function in a meaningful and practical way.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

Solve the following differential equations by the method of Frobenius (generalized power series). Remember that the point of doing these problems is to learn about the method (which we will use later), not just to find a solution. You may recognize some series [as we did in (11.6)] or you can check your series by expanding a computer answer. $$x y^{\prime \prime}-y^{\prime}+9 x^{5} y=0$$

Expand the following functions in Legendre series. $$f(x)=P_{n}^{\prime}(x)$$ Hint: For \(l \geq n, \int_{-1}^{1} P_{n}^{\prime}(x) P_{l}(x) d x=0\) (Why?); for \(l

Prove the least squares approximation property of Legendre polynomials [see (9.5) and (9.6)] as follows. Let \(f(x)\) be the given function to be approximated. Let the functions \(p_{l}(x)\) be the normalized Legendre polynomials, that is, $$p_{l}(x)=\sqrt{\frac{2 l+1}{2}} P_{l}(x) \quad \text { so that } \quad \int_{-1}^{1}\left[p_{l}(x)\right]^{2} d x=1$$ Show that the Legendre series for \(f(x)\) as far as the \(p_{2}(x)\) term is $$f(x)=c_{0} p_{0}(x)+c_{1} p_{1}(x)+c_{2} p_{2}(x) \quad \text { with } \quad c_{l}=\int_{-1}^{1} f(x) p_{l}(x) d x$$ Write the quadratic polynomial satisfying the least squares condition as \(b_{0} p_{0}(x)+\) \(b_{1} p_{1}(x)+b_{2} p_{2}(x)\) (by Problem 5.14 any quadratic polynomial can be written in this form). The problem is to find \(b_{0}, b_{1}, b_{2}\) so that $$I=\int_{-1}^{1}\left[f(x)-\left(b_{0} p_{0}(x)+b_{1} p_{1}(x)+b_{2} p_{2}(x)\right)\right]^{2} d x$$ is a minimum. Square the bracket and write \(I\) as a sum of integrals of the individual terms. Show that some of the integrals are zero by orthogonality, some are 1 because the \(p_{t}\) 's are normalized, and others are equal to the coefficients \(c_{l}\). Add and subtract \(c_{0}^{2}+c_{1}^{2}+c_{2}^{2}\) and show that $$I=\int_{-1}^{1}\left[f^{2}(x)+\left(b_{0}-c_{0}\right)^{2}+\left(b_{1}-c_{1}\right)^{2}+\left(b_{2}-c_{2}\right)^{2}-c_{0}^{2}-c_{1}^{2}-c_{2}^{2}\right] d x$$ Now determine the values of the \(b\) 's to make \(I\) as small as possible. (Hint: The smallest value the square of a real number can have is zero.) Generalize the proof to polynomials of degree \(n\).

By a method similar to that we used to show that the \(P_{l^{\prime}}\) s are an orthogonal set of functions on \((-1,1),\) show that the solutions of \(y_{n}^{\prime \prime}=-n^{2} y_{n}\) are an orthogonal set on \((-\pi, \pi) .\) Hint: You should know what functions the solutions \(y_{n}\) are; do not use the functions themselves, but you may use their values and the values of their derivatives at \(-\pi\) and \(\pi\) to evaluate the integrated part of your equation.

Verify that the differential equation \(x^{4} y^{\prime \prime}+y=0\) is not Fuchsian; that it has the two independent solutions \(x \sin (1 / x)\) and \(x \cos (1 / x) ;\) and that these solutions are not expandable in Frobenius series.

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