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Expand the following functions in Legendre series. $$f(x)=\left\\{\begin{array}{rr} -1, & -1

Short Answer

Expert verified
The Legendre series expansion has only even terms with coefficients calculated as \( a_n = (2n+1) \times \int_0^1 P_n(x) \, dx \).

Step by step solution

01

Understanding the Function

The function \( f(x) = \left\{ \begin{array}{rr} -1, & -1 < x < 0 \ 1, & 0 < x < 1 \end{array} \right. \) is defined piecewise. Note the intervals where the function has different constant values.
02

Recall the Legendre Series Expansion Formula

The Legendre series expansion of a function \( f(x) \) on the interval \( [-1, 1] \) is given by: \[ f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n P_n(x) \], where \( P_n(x) \) are the Legendre polynomials and the coefficients \( a_n \) are found by integrating: \[ a_n = \frac{2n+1}{2} \int_{-1}^{1} f(x) P_n(x) \, dx \].
03

Integrate for Coefficients \( a_n \)

Calculate the coefficients \( a_n \) by evaluating the integral for each \( n \). \( a_n = \frac{2n+1}{2} \left[ \int_{-1}^{0} (-1)P_n(x) \, dx + \int_{0}^{1} (1)P_n(x) \, dx \right] \).
04

Separate Integrals

Separate the integrals into two parts: \[ a_n = \frac{2n+1}{2} \left[- \int_{-1}^{0} P_n(x) \, dx + \int_{0}^{1} P_n(x) \, dx \right].\]
05

Simplify Using Orthogonality

Use the fact that Legendre polynomials are orthogonal over \( [-1, 1] \). This implies that the integral of \( P_n(x) \) over \( [-1, 1] \) is zero if \( n \) is odd and non-zero if \( n \) is even.
06

Evaluate for Even and Odd \( n \)

For odd \( n \), the symmetric property of Legendre polynomials yields zero contributions: \[ a_n = 0.\] For even \( n \), compute: \[ a_n = (2n+1) \times \int_0^1 P_n(x) \, dx.\]

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Key Concepts

These are the key concepts you need to understand to accurately answer the question.

Piecewise Functions
A piecewise function is a function that has different expressions for different intervals of its domain. In other words, the function's definition changes based on the input value. For instance, in the given problem, the function \( f(x) \) is defined as follows:
\( f(x) = \left\{ \begin{array}{rr} -1, & -1 < x < 0 \ 1, & 0 < x < 1 \ \end{array} \right. \).

Here, the function has two distinct constant values: -1 for \(-1 < x < 0\) and 1 for \(0 < x < 1\). This change in value is why it's called a piecewise function. These types of functions are quite common in real-world scenarios like signal processing and physics, where different conditions apply over different ranges.

When dealing with piecewise functions, one challenge is representing them in a unified form, such as when performing integration or series expansion. You need to account for each piece separately before combining the results to form the overall solution.
Legendre Polynomials
Legendre polynomials, \( P_n(x) \), are a set of orthogonal polynomials that arise frequently in physics and engineering, particularly in problems involving spherical coordinates. These polynomials are solutions to Legendre's differential equation and are defined over the interval \/([-1, 1])\.

A key property of Legendre polynomials is their orthogonality, which means that the integral of the product of two different Legendre polynomials over the interval \/([-1, 1])\ is zero:
\( \int_{-1}^{1} P_m(x) P_n(x) \, dx = 0 \) if \( m eq n \).

This property simplifies the process of finding coefficients in a Legendre series expansion. The general expansion for a function \( f(x) \) using Legendre polynomials is:
\( f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n P_n(x) \),
where the coefficients \( a_n \) are given by:
\( a_n = \frac{2n+1}{2} \int_{-1}^{1} f(x) P_n(x) \, dx \).
These coefficients indicate how much of each polynomial contributes to the function.
Orthogonality
Orthogonality is a crucial concept in mathematics, particularly in the context of functions and polynomials. It refers to the idea that two functions, such as Legendre polynomials, are orthogonal if their inner product over a specific interval is zero. For Legendre polynomials \( P_m(x) \) and \( P_n(x) \), orthogonality means:
\( \int_{-1}^{1} P_m(x) P_n(x) \, dx = 0 \) if \( m eq n \).

This property greatly simplifies the computation of coefficients in series expansions. In the case of a Legendre series, orthogonality helps to isolate each coefficient \( a_n \)
in the expansion:
\( a_n = \frac{2n+1}{2} \int_{-1}^{1} f(x) P_n(x) \, dx \).

Thanks to orthogonality, when you integrate the product of the function and the polynomial, all terms involving other polynomials vanish, leaving only the term involving \( P_n(x) \). This feature is why using orthogonal polynomials like Legendre polynomials is very efficient for series expansions and solving differential equations.

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Most popular questions from this chapter

(a) The generating function for Bessel functions of integral order \(p=n\) is $$ \Phi(x, h)=e^{(1 / 2) x\left(h-h^{-1}\right)}=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} h^{n} J_{n}(x) $$ By expanding the exponential in powers of \(x\left(h-h^{-1}\right)\) show that the \(n=0\) term is \(J_{0}(x)\) as claimed. (b) Show that $$ x^{2} \frac{\partial^{2} \Phi}{\partial x^{2}}+x \frac{\partial \Phi}{\partial x}+x^{2} \Phi-\left(h \frac{\partial}{\partial h}\right)^{2} \Phi=0 $$ Use this result and \(\Phi(x, h)=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} h^{n} J_{n}(x)\) to show that the functions \(J_{n}(x)\) satisfy Bessel's equation. By considering the terms in \(h^{n}\) in the expansion of \(e^{(1 / 2) x\left(h-h^{-1}\right)}\) in part (a), show that the coefficient of \(h^{n}\) is a series starting with the term \((1 / n !)(x / 2)^{n}\). (You have then proved that the functions called \(J_{n}(x)\) in the expansion of \(\Phi(x, h)\) are indeed the Bessel functions of integral order previously defined by (12.9) and (13.1) with \(p=n\).)

(a) Make the change of variables \(z=e^{x}\) in the differential equation \(y^{\prime \prime}+e^{2 x} y=0\) and so find a solution of the differential equation in terms of Bessel functions. (b) Make the change of variables \(z=e^{x^{2} / 2}\) in the differential equation \(x y^{\prime \prime}-y^{\prime}+\) \(x^{3}\left(e^{x^{2}}-p^{2}\right) y=0,\) and solve the equation in terms of Bessel functions.

Expand the following functions in Legendre series. $$f(x)=P_{n}^{\prime}(x)$$ Hint: For \(l \geq n, \int_{-1}^{1} P_{n}^{\prime}(x) P_{l}(x) d x=0\) (Why?); for \(l

Show that \(R=l x-\left(1-x^{2}\right) D\) and \(L=l x+\left(1-x^{2}\right) D,\) where \(D=d / d x,\) are raising and lowering operators for Legendre polynomials [compare Hermite functions, (22.1) to (22.11) and Bessel functions, Problems 22.29 and 22.30]. More precisely, show that \(R P_{l-1}(x)=l P_{l}(x)\) and \(L P_{l}(x)=l P_{l-1}(x) .\) Hint: Use equations \((5.8 \mathrm{d})\) and (5.8f). Note that, unlike the raising and lowering operators for Hermite functions, here \(R\) and \(L\) depend on \(l\) as well as \(x,\) so you must be careful about indices. The \(L\) operator operates on \(P_{l},\) but the \(R\) operator as given operates on \(P_{l-1}\) to produce \(l P_{l} .\) [If you prefer, you could replace \(l\) by \(l+1\) to rewrite \(R\) as \((l+1) x-\left(1-x^{2}\right) D\) then it operates on \(P_{l}\) to produce \((l+1) P_{l+1} .\) ] Assuming that all \(P_{l}(1)=1,\) solve \(L P_{0}(x)=0\) to find \(P_{0}(x)=1,\) and then use raising operators to find \(P_{1}(x)\) and \(P_{2}(x).\)

Prove the least squares approximation property of Legendre polynomials [see (9.5) and (9.6)] as follows. Let \(f(x)\) be the given function to be approximated. Let the functions \(p_{l}(x)\) be the normalized Legendre polynomials, that is, $$p_{l}(x)=\sqrt{\frac{2 l+1}{2}} P_{l}(x) \quad \text { so that } \quad \int_{-1}^{1}\left[p_{l}(x)\right]^{2} d x=1$$ Show that the Legendre series for \(f(x)\) as far as the \(p_{2}(x)\) term is $$f(x)=c_{0} p_{0}(x)+c_{1} p_{1}(x)+c_{2} p_{2}(x) \quad \text { with } \quad c_{l}=\int_{-1}^{1} f(x) p_{l}(x) d x$$ Write the quadratic polynomial satisfying the least squares condition as \(b_{0} p_{0}(x)+\) \(b_{1} p_{1}(x)+b_{2} p_{2}(x)\) (by Problem 5.14 any quadratic polynomial can be written in this form). The problem is to find \(b_{0}, b_{1}, b_{2}\) so that $$I=\int_{-1}^{1}\left[f(x)-\left(b_{0} p_{0}(x)+b_{1} p_{1}(x)+b_{2} p_{2}(x)\right)\right]^{2} d x$$ is a minimum. Square the bracket and write \(I\) as a sum of integrals of the individual terms. Show that some of the integrals are zero by orthogonality, some are 1 because the \(p_{t}\) 's are normalized, and others are equal to the coefficients \(c_{l}\). Add and subtract \(c_{0}^{2}+c_{1}^{2}+c_{2}^{2}\) and show that $$I=\int_{-1}^{1}\left[f^{2}(x)+\left(b_{0}-c_{0}\right)^{2}+\left(b_{1}-c_{1}\right)^{2}+\left(b_{2}-c_{2}\right)^{2}-c_{0}^{2}-c_{1}^{2}-c_{2}^{2}\right] d x$$ Now determine the values of the \(b\) 's to make \(I\) as small as possible. (Hint: The smallest value the square of a real number can have is zero.) Generalize the proof to polynomials of degree \(n\).

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