Chapter 11: Problem 8
Criticise the following 'proof' that \(\pi=0\) (a) Apply Green's theorem in a plane to the functions \(P(x, y)=\tan ^{-1}(y / x)\) and \(Q(x, y)=\tan ^{-1}(x / y)\), taking the region \(R\) to be the unit circle centred on the origin. (b) The RHS of the equality so produced is $$ \iint_{R} \frac{y-x}{x^{2}+y^{2}} d x d y $$ which, either by symmetry considerations or by changing to plane polar coordinates, can be shown to have zero value. (c) In the LHS of the equality set \(x=\cos \theta\) and \(y=\sin \theta\), yielding \(P(\theta)=\theta\) and \(Q(\theta)=\pi / 2-\theta .\) The line integral becomes $$ \int_{0}^{2} \pi\left[\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\theta\right) \cos \theta-\theta \sin \theta\right] d \theta $$ which has value \(2 \pi\) (d) Thus \(2 \pi=0\) and the stated result follows.
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