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The current level of the S&P 500 is 1,200. The dividend yield on the S&P 500 is 2%. The risk-free interest rate is 1%. What should a futures contract with a one-year maturity be selling for?

Short Answer

Expert verified

Answer

$1,188

Step by step solution

01

Given Value

Current Price (S0) = $1,200

Risk-free rate (Rf) = 1%

Dividend yield (D) =2%

Time (T) = 1 Year

02

Calculation of future’s contract with one year maturity

Future’s price = S0(1 + Rf– D)T

= $1,200 x (1 + 0.01 – 0.02)1

= $1,188

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Most popular questions from this chapter

In this problem, we derive the put-call parity relationship for European options on stocks that pay dividends before option expiration. For simplicity, assume that the stock makes one dividend payment of $ D per share at the expiration date of the option.

a. What is the value of the stock-plus-put position on the expiration date of the option?

b. Now consider a portfolio consisting of a call option and a zero-coupon bond with the same expiration date as the option and with face value ( X + D ). What is the value of this portfolio on the option expiration date? You should find that its value equals that of the stock-plus-put portfolio, regardless of the stock price.

c. What is the cost of establishing the two portfolios in parts ( a ) and ( b )? Equate the cost of these portfolios, and you will derive the put-call parity relationship, Equation 16.3.

Suppose you are attempting to value a one-year maturity option on a stock with volatility (i.e., annualized standard deviation) ofσ= .40. What would be the appropriate values for u and d if your binomial model is set up using the following?

a. 1 period of one year

b. 4 sub-periods, each 3 months

c. 12 sub-periods, each 1 month

Joan Tam, CFA, believes she has identified an arbitrage opportunity for a commodity as indicated by the information given in the following exhibit:

a. Describe the transactions necessary to take advantage of this specific arbitrage opportunity.

b. Calculate the arbitrage profit.

Return to Problem 35. Value the call option using the risk-neutral shortcut described in the box on page 533. Confirm that your answer matches the value you get using the two-state approach.

Question: You are attempting to value a call option with an exercise price of \(100 and one year to expiration. The underlying stock pays no dividends, its current price is \)100, and you believe it has a 50% chance of increasing to \(120 and a 50% chance of decreasing to \)80.

The risk-free rate of interest is 10%. Calculate the call option’s value using the two-state stock price model.

Reconsider the determination of the hedge ratio in the two-state model (Section 16.2), where we showed that one-third share of stock would hedge one option. What would be the hedge ratio for each of the following exercise prices: \(120, \)110, \(100, \)90? What do you conclude about the hedge ratio as the option becomes progressively more in the money?

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